Technology In Action Complete 9th Edition By Evans - Test Bank

Technology In Action Complete 9th Edition By Evans – Test Bank

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Sample Questions Are Posted Below

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which numbering system uses letters to represent some digits?
A) hexadecimal B) binary C) octal D) decimal
1)
2) What is the base for hexadecimal numbers?
A) 8 B) 10 C) 2 D) 16
2)
3) What color is displayed if each color in the RGB system is saturated?
A) white B) this is not a valid color combination
C) brown D) black
3)
4) The most commonly used number system is ________.
A) decimal B) octal C) hexadecimal D) binary
4)
5) All of the following are true about the binary system, EXCEPT:
A) it is comprised of 0s and 1s. B) it is used by computers.
C) it is known as base 10. D) it is comprised of two digits.
5)
6) How many binary digits are represented by one hexadecimal digit?
A) 1 B) 16 C) 8 D) 4
6)
7) Which of the following is NOT a numbering system?
A) binary B) decimal C) ASCII D) hexadecimal
7)
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
8) A four-digit hexadecimal number represents ________ binary digits. 8)
9) A common use for ________ numbers is to represent colors on Web pages. 9)
10) If all three RBG parameters for decimal are set to 0, the background will be ________. 10)
11) Each digit in a hexadecimal number represents ________ bits. 11)
12) ________ is a popular shareware program that is a scientific calculator utility program. 12)
13) The binary system uses the numbers ________ to represent digits. 13)
14) The calculator view in Windows 7 that enables you to convert numbers systems is
________.
14)
15) Binary is known as base ________. 15)
1
16) The decimal system is base ________. 16)
TRUE/FALSE. Write ‘T’ if the statement is true and ‘F’ if the statement is false.
17) Hexadecimal is also known as base 16. 17)
18) Each digit in a hexadecimal number represents a bit pattern of 8 bits. 18)
19) Hexadecimal numbers show up for codes for font sizes on Web pages. 19)
20) The importance of the ASCII table is that it shows that computers can only represent patterns of 1s
and 0s.
20)
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
21) Match the following terms to their description.
I. binary A. base 10
II. hexadecimal B. base 2
III. decimal C. allows for 255 color combinations
IV. RGB D. codes for characters
V. ASCII E. base 16
21)
2
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED5
1) A
2) D
3) A
4) A
5) C
6) D
7) C
8) 16
9) hexadecimal
10) black
11) four
12) Calc98
13) 1 and 0
14) programmer2
15) 2
16) 10
17) TRUE
18) FALSE
19) FALSE
20) TRUE
21) B, E, A, C, D
3

Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) The cP air masses pictured here originate
A) over land masses and bring warm air during the summer.
B) over water and bring warm air during the summer.
C) over land masses and bring cold air during the winter.
D) over water and bring cold air during the winter.
1)
1
2) The mT air masses pictured here originate
A) over land, are stable, and bring cold air during the summer.
B) over water, are unstable, and bring warm air during the winter.
C) over water, are stable, and bring cold air during the summer.
D) over land, are unstable, and bring warm air during the winter.
2)
2
3) Which of the following air masses pictured here is typically unstable, with cold air
overlying warm air? The westerlies often push this cool, damp wind of this air mass
eastward.
A) cT B) cP C) mT D) mP
3)
3
4) Which of the following air masses pictured here is dry, unstable, and hot?
A) mP B) cP C) mT D) cT
4)
5) As an mP air mass in the United States moves eastward over the northern Great Plains of
the U.S. The air mass is likely going to be modified to a
A) cP air mass. B) cT air mass.
C) mT air mass. D) It will stay as an mP air mass.
5)
4
6) Find the stationary front located in northwestern Canada. The likely air mass to the west of
the stationary front is a ________ airmass that is likely to be ________ than the air mass to
the east.
A) cP; cooler B) mT; warmer C) cP; warmer D) mP; warmer
6)
5
7) Find the largest cold front located on the map. The likely air mass to the west of the cold
front is a ________ mass that is likely to be ________ than the air mass to the east.
A) mP; moister B) cP; moister C) cP; drier D) mT; moister
7)
6
8) Find the largest front located north of the Great Lakes on the map. The likely air mass to
the south of this front is a ________ mass that is likely to be ________ than the air mass to
the north.
A) mT; moister B) mP; moister C) cP; drier D) cP; moister
8)
9) In the cross section of the front pictured here
A) cumuliform clouds tend to form with precipitation being of relatively long duration.
B) stratiform clouds tend to form with precipitation being of relatively long duration.
C) cumuliform clouds tend to form with precipitation being relatively short-lived.
D) stratiform clouds tend to form with precipitation being relatively short-lived.
9)
7
10) In the cross section of the front pictured here
A) stratiform clouds tend to form with precipitation being of relatively long duration.
B) stratiform clouds tend to form with precipitation being relatively short-lived.
C) cumuliform clouds tend to form with precipitation being relatively short-lived.
D) cumuliform clouds tend to form with precipitation being of relatively long duration.
10)
11) Which of the following locations would contribute to midlatitude cyclogenesis?
A) Relatively cold water offshore from a warm land mass
B) Relatively warm water offshore from a cold land mass
C) Along cold constant pressure surfaces
D) The upwind side of a mountain chain
11)
12) Which of the following locations would contribute to midlatitude cyclogenesis?
A) Where air spreads out and accelerates as it passes from an upper air trough to an
upper air ridge
B) Where air converges and accelerates as it passes from an upper air ridge to an upper
air trough
C) Where air spreads out and accelerates as it passes from an upper air ridge to an
upper air trough
D) Where air converges and slows as it passes from an upper air trough to an upper air
ridge principles
12)
8
13) Which of the following locations would best represent a storm track characterized as
bringing cold moist air to inland Canada?
A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
13)
14) Which of the following locations would spawn a storm track known as a “Noreaster” that
is difficult to forecast and can bring heavy snow?
A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E
14)
9
15) Which of the following best explains for the midlatitude cyclone tracking to the northeast
and strengthening?
A) Surface level winds accelerating and diverging
B) Upper air accelerating and diverging
C) Upper air accelerating and converging
D) Upper air slowing and diverging
15)
16) In regard to the occlusion process, at which segment is warm air in contact with the
surface?
A) B-A B) D-C C) F-E
16)
10
17) In regard to the occlusion process, at which segment has warm air been lifted above the
cooler and cold air?
A) B-A B) D-C C) F-E
17)
18) When an occlusion occurs,
A) the warm front overtakes the cold front and the warmer air is lifted from the surface.
B) the cold front overtakes the warm front and the colder air is lifted from the surface.
C) the warm front overtakes the cold front and the colder air is lifted from the surface.
D) the cold front overtakes the warm front and the warmer air is lifted from the surface.
18)
19) Which of the following segments best illustrates the end of a midlatitude cyclones
occlusion process?
A) F-E B) B-A C) D-C
19)
11
20) Which conditions are correctly listed below in regard to the formation of lake effect
snows?
A) Area B is colder than area A with an stable atmosphere.
B) Area A is warmer than area B with an unstable atmosphere.
C) Area B is warmer than area B with an stable atmosphere.
D) Area A is colder than area B with an stable atmosphere.
20)
21) The formation of a midlatitude anticyclone is favored
A) on either the eastern or western side of a trough.
B) on the eastern side of an upper-level ridge.
C) on the western side of an upper-level ridge.
D) on the eastern side of an upper-level trough.
21)
22) Midlatitude anticyclones are likely to form at which part of a Rossby Wave? Where
A) air diverges and accelerates. B) air converges and accelerates.
C) air diverges and slows. D) air converges and slows.
22)
23) Migrating midlatitude anticyclones typically
A) move easterly driven by the prevailing easterlies.
B) move westerly driven by the prevailing westerlies.
C) move easterly driven by the prevailing westerlies.
D) move westerly driven by the prevailing easterlies.
23)
12
24) In the anticyclone pictured here, the winds at area A are from the ________ bringing
________ temperatures.
A) north; cooler B) north; warmer
C) south; warmer D) south; cooler
24)
25) In the anticyclone pictured here, the winds at area B are from the ________ bringing
________ temperatures.
A) south; cooler B) north; warmer
C) south; warmer D) north; cooler
25)
26) Which stage in thunderstorm formation is characterized by updrafts accompanied by
downdrafts induced by falling precipitation?
A) Dissipating stage B) Mature stage
C) Cloud merger stage D) Cumulus stage
26)
27) The best evidence of vertical wind shear in this development of a multicell thunderstorm
is at the
A) cloud merger stage. B) cumulus stage.
C) mature stage. D) dissipating stage.
27)
13
28) All of the following could enhance a single-celled thunderstorm except
A) a cool surface and a downdraft dominated cloud.
B) extensive areas of cloud mergers between adjacent clouds.
C) vertical wind shear keeping precipitation separated from the uplift zone.
D) a hot surface and an updraft dominated cloud.
28)
29) The best evidence of vertical wind shear in this development of a multicell thunderstorm is
at
A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D.
29)
30) Which of the following is likely to strengthen a supercell thunderstorm?
A) Tightening of updraft rotation found in the mesocyclone
B) Dry line with air masses of similar moisture content
C) Extensive blasts of thunder causing increased latent heat release
D) Evaporational cooling associated with downdrafts cooling updrafts
30)
31) Which of the following group of regions receive the most frequent thunderstorms?
A) West coast of South America, west coast of south Africa, southern Australia
B) Gulf of Mexico, central Africa, Southeast Asia
C) West coast of the United States, northern Canada, Antartica
D) Great Lakes, north Africa, Japan
31)
14
32) Thunderstorms would be most frequent
A) in January in the Southern Hemisphere over oceans.
B) in July in the Southern Hemisphere over land.
C) in January in the Northern Hemisphere over land.
D) in July in the Northern Hemisphere over oceans.
32)
33) Where is the difference between frontal boundaries so slight that the uplift necessary to
create thunderstorms is lacking?
A) Northeast B) Southwest
C) Southeast D) Pacific Northwest
33)
34) Which state, as a whole, experiences the highest frequency of thunderstorms in the
United States?
A) Florida B) Louisiana
C) South Carolina D) Michigan
34)
35) For the United States as a whole, thunderstorm activity is most intense in
A) March. B) September. C) July. D) April.
35)
36) All of the following will enhance the formation of hail except
A) great amounts of cloud water droplets and water vapor.
B) great vertical development of the cloud.
C) strong updrafts and downdrafts found within the cloud.
D) little temperature contrast between fronts.
36)
15
37) Where in the cloud is Bergeron process going to be most vigorous?
A) A B) B C) C
37)
38) Annual U.S. hail frequency is greatest
A) in southern High Plains states like Oklahoma and Kansas.
B) in northern High Plains states like North and South Dakota.
C) in Pacific Northwest states like Washington and Oregon.
D) in Southeastern states like North and South Carolina.
38)
39) Which of the following statements is true regarding U.S. hail seasonality?
A) Hail occurs most frequently in High Plains states in January and October.
B) Hail occurs later in the calendar year in northern states than southern states.
C) Hail occurs earlier in the calendar year in northern states than southern states.
D) Hail occurs most frequently in Southeastern states in January and October.
39)
40) The most frequent time of day for hail based on a sample of five U.S. cities is
A) 4 p.m. B) noon. C) 6 a.m. D) 10 p.m.
40)
16
41) Which of the following represents the correct charge sequence to create lightning?
A) A, negative; B, positive; C, negative B) A, negative; B, negative; C, positive
C) A, positive; B, negative; C, positive D) A, positive; B, negative; C, negative
41)
42) Which sequence best describe thunder formation?
A) Cooling, contraction, air filling the vacuum
B) Heating, contraction, air filling the vacuum
C) Heating, expansion, air filling the vacuum
D) Cooling, expansion, air filling the vacuum
42)
43) One of the ways to stay safe from the danger of lightning is to know how far away the
approaching storm is. If you see a flash of lightning and then hear thunder approximately
15 seconds later, the lightning is
A) right on top of your location. B) three miles from your location.
C) a mile from your location. D) fifteen miles from your location.
43)
44) Each of the following is a wise strategy when lightning is sited except
A) staying away from windows or doors in the house.
B) seeking an automobile to wait out the storm.
C) avoiding touching or standing near tall metal objects.
D) lying down outdoors to minimize ground contact.
44)
45) Which state would be the safest if you wanted to avoid death by lightning?
A) Washington B) Maine C) Florida D) Wyoming
45)
17
46) All of the following are conducive to the formation of tornadoes except
A) mountains and other topographic barriers.
B) vertical wind shear.
C) internal rotation and updrafts.
D) tightening internal rotation.
46)
47) Strong updrafts and internal rotation are necessary to spawn tornadoes. Which location is
most likely to have a tornado?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
47)
48) The weather system most likely to produce the strongest tornadoes is generally
associated with
A) cold fronts. B) warm fronts.
C) single-cell thunderstorms. D) hurricanes.
48)
18
49) The most likely area for the development of tornadoes from this hurricane once it makes
landfall is
A) A. B) B. C) C. D) D.
49)
50) A tornado blows walls from homes. The likely EF categorization of the tornado
producing this damage is
A) EF2. B) EF1. C) EF4. D) EF3.
50)
51) Which of the following regions has the lowest annual frequency of tornadoes?
A) Northeast coast B) Gulf Coast
C) North Texas to the Dakotas D) Florida
51)
52) During the summer, which of the following regions would experience the greatest
number of tornadoes?
A) Southern Great Plains B) Northern Great Plains
C) Gulf coast D) Florida
52)
53) One of the reasons why tornado frequency is lower in Europe than in North America is
A) higher than normal temperatures due to the presence of the Gulf Stream.
B) the Gulf Stream encourages the clash or warm and cold air.
C) east west trending mountains inhibit the clash of warm and cold air.
D) lower population densities and storm reporting capabilities.
53)
19
54) The most likely time for a tornado during the day is at
A) noon when the sun is highest in the sky.
B) midnight when temperatures are coolest.
C) 6 p.m.
D) 6 a.m.
54)
55) The frequency of reported tornadoes would be favored by all the conditions except
A) north south mountain chains.
B) upper level wind shear.
C) sophisticated detection ability.
D) proximity to a supply of warm moist air.
55)
56) Fair-weather waterspouts generally
A) form from thunderclouds. B) form from normal cumulus clouds.
C) are associated with tornadoes. D) are the strongest type of waterspout.
56)
57) Derechos are
A) strong downdrafts often creating ominous looking shelf clouds.
B) normally display a “starburst” (radial) damage pattern from rotating winds.
C) concentrated on the Gulf Coast, particularly Florida.
D) strong updrafts that can cause airplanes to crash.
57)
58) Microbursts
A) occur in the early stage of thunderstorms when latent heat release is maximized.
B) normally display a “starburst” (radial) damage pattern from rotating winds.
C) are never accompanied by rain, and are only associated with dust storms.
D) are characterized by strong updrafts that can cause airplanes to crash.
58)
59) Haboobs
A) are associated with dust storms, usually created during the dying phase of a
thunderstorm.
B) normally display a “starburst” (radial) damage pattern from rotating winds.
C) are associated with waterspouts, usually created during the early phase of a
thunderstorm.
D) occur where upper level wind patterns encourage rising motion.
59)
60) The origin of dust devils would be most similar to
A) tornadoes. B) microbursts. C) virga. D) haboobs.
60)
20
61) Where will the storm surge be greatest for this cyclone or hurricane making land fall in
Louisiana?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
61)
62) If a storm can survive the west side of an easterly wave, there is a chance it can intensify
into a hurricane. Which of the following is correct regarding an easterly wave?
A) The east side of the wave has descending, stable air.
B) The west side of the wave has rising, stable air.
C) The east side of the wave has rising, unstable air.
D) The west side of the wave has descending, unstable air.
62)
63) A tropical cyclone in the northern hemisphere rotates ________ and has a storm track
turning ________.
A) clockwise; south and southeast
B) counterclockwise; north and northeast
C) counterclockwise; south and southeast
D) clockwise; north and northeast
63)
64) A tropical cyclone in the southern hemisphere rotates ________ and has a storm track
turning ________.
A) clockwise, north and northwest
B) counterclockwise, south and southwest
C) counterclockwise, north and northwest
D) clockwise, south and southwest
64)
21
65) Most Atlantic tropical cyclones have their origin in
A) the Gulf of Mexico. B) northwest Africa.
C) the Caribbean. D) the middle of the Atlantic Ocean.
65)
66) A tropical cyclone will be strengthened by
A) a path over cool water. B) entrainment of dry air.
C) a path over warm water. D) decreased release of latent heat.
66)
67) A tropical cyclone will be weakened
A) by decreased friction. B) by entrainment of moist air.
C) when it makes landfall. D) by decreased wind shear.
67)
68) Which of the following types of damage from tropical cyclones originates farthest from
the coast?
A) Storm surges that raise sea level
B) High winds eroding local beaches
C) Burial of neighborhoods by sand
D) Flooding by rain swollen inland streams
68)
69) Which of the following is true concerning the Saffir-Simpson scale except
A) category 3–5 storms are considered major hurricanes.
B) a tropical storm becomes a hurricane when winds exceed 119 km/hr (74 mi/hr).
C) a category 5 hurricane produces more than five times the damage of a category 1
hurricane.
D) Hurricane Katrina was a category 5 hurricane.
69)
70) Which of the following sources of data for weather forecasts are provided at the most
intermittent intervals?
A) Airborne instruments B) Marine data
C) Radar D) Satellite data
70)
71) Which phenomena involves the most equations in weather forecasting models?
A) Atmospheric motion B) Atmospheric moisture
C) Density changes D) Changes in incoming energy
71)
72) Which weather model would provide the best accuracy/precision but the greatest cost in
terms of computer time?
A) Larger spatial resolution, longer time steps
B) Larger spatial resolution, shorter time steps
C) Finer spatial resolution, shorter time steps
D) Finer spatial resolution, longer time steps
72)
22
73) Doppler radar detects motion within a supercell thunderstorm using the Doppler effect,
which states that
A) objects moving away from the transmitter will result in an decrease in wavelength.
B) objects moving away from the transmitter will result in an increase in wavelength.
C) objects moving toward the transmitter will result in an increase in wavelength.
D) Immobile objects will result in an increase in wavelength.
73)
74) All of the following is true regarding Doppler radar except
A) complete coverage in large urban areas with skyscrapers.
B) false echoes can occur from moving objects like birds.
C) false echoes can occur from stationary objects like skyscrapers.
D) mountains can shield areas from coverage.
74)
75) When contrasting a weather warning, with a weather watch, the warning is usually
designated for a ________ and means you should ________.
A) larger area; seek shelter immediately
B) smaller area; be aware that conditions are favorable for severe weather
C) larger area; be aware that conditions are favorable for severe weather
D) smaller area; seek shelter immediately
75)
23
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED5
1) C
2) B
3) D
4) D
5) A
6) D
7) C
8) A
9) C
10) A
11) B
12) A
13) A
14) E
15) B
16) A
17) B
18) D
19) A
20) B
21) B
22) D
23) C
24) C
25) D
26) B
27) C
28) A
29) C
30) A
31) B
32) D
33) D
34) A
35) C
36) D
37) C
38) A
39) B
40) A
41) C
42) C
43) B
44) D
45) A
46) A
47) D
48) A
49) B
50) D
24
Answer Key
Testname: UNTITLED5
51) A
52) B
53) C
54) C
55) A
56) B
57) A
58) B
59) A
60) A
61) B
62) C
63) B
64) D
65) B
66) C
67) C
68) D
69) D
70) A
71) A
72) C
73) B
74) A
75) D
25