Discovering Behavioral Neuroscience An Introduction to Biological Psychology 3rd Edition by Laura Freberg - Test Bank

Discovering Behavioral Neuroscience An Introduction to Biological Psychology 3rd Edition by Laura Freberg – Test Bank

 

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Sample Questions Are Posted Below

 

True / False

1. Joan has one APOE3 and one APOE4 allele. This means Joan is heterozygous for the APOE gene.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

2. Females are much more likely than males to develop conditions influenced by genes that are located on the X chromosome, because they have two X chromosomes instead of one and therefore twice as much opportunity to experience problems with genes on those chromosomes.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

3. Because the heritability of height is 81 percent, and the heritability of adult body mass index (BMI) is 59 percent, we can conclude that genetics play a stronger role in the development of height than BMI
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

4. Without contact with any other embryonic cells, a mesodermal cell will differentiate into skin.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

5. About two-thirds of the cells traveling to the developing cortex follow radial glia, and the remaining one-third move in a horizontal direction instead, without using radial glia to guide them.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

6. Myelination of the human spinal cord and brain begins about 24 weeks following conception and is complete by the age of about 18 months.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

7. True or false? Critical periods occur in many animals, such as the imprinting observed in geese, but has not yet been observed in humans.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

8. True or false? Doctors recommend that those with phenylketonuria adhere to the dietary restrictions associated with this condition throughout their lifetimes.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

9. True or false? Healthy brain activity as we age appears to be quite independent of lifestyle, so there is little any of us can do to prevent declines in this area.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: False
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

10. True or false? The generation and maintenance of good brain health is less well understood than the mechanisms responsible for disease, especially among older adults.
a. True
b. False
ANSWER: True
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

Multiple Choice

11. The human genome contains about ________ protein-building genes.
a. 9,500
b. 19,000
c. 100,000
d. 2.5 million
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

12. Of the following species, which has the largest number of genes in their genome?
a. plants
b. flies
c. yeast cells
d. human beings
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

13. An individual organism’s set of genetic instructions is known as the their
a. telomere.
b. genotype.
c. phenotype.
d. chromosome.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

14. An individual organism’s observable characteristics, are known as their
a. genome.
b. genotype.
c. phenotype.
d. chromosome.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

15. Which of the following is the best example of a phenotype?
a. Ryan has black hair.
b. Jessica has an allele for type O blood from her father and one for type A blood from her mother.
c. Andrew has one gene for blonde hair and another gene for black hair.
d. Elizabeth has two copies of the APOE3 allele.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Application

16. Which of the following is the best example of a genotype?
a. Nicole has green eyes.
b. Justin is taller than his parents.
c. Lauren has the same hair color as her fraternal twin sister.
d. Anthony has two copies of the APOE2 allele.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Application

17. How many chromosomes do human beings typically have?
a. 20 pairs for a total of 40 chromosomes
b. 21 pairs for a total of 42 chromosomes
c. 22 pairs for a total of 44 chromosomes
d. 23 pairs for a total of 46 chromosomes
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

18. How many chromosomes do human beings receive from each parent?
a. 23
b. 46
c. 21
d. 42
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

19. In which of the following cells would you not find the same DNA as any of the other trillions of cells in your body?
a. red blood cells
b. leukocytes
c. white blood cells
d. basophils
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

20. Which of the following is the best definition of a gene?
a. an individual’s set of observable characteristics
b. a hereditary unit made of DNA that occupies a fixed location on a chromosome
c. a molecule that encodes genetic information
d. a sequence of three bases on the DNA molecule that encode one of twenty amino acids
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

21. Alternative versions of a particular gene are known as
a. SNPs.
b. imprinted genes.
c. alleles.
d. proteomes.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

22. Brandon and Jacob are identical twins. However, Brandon had a finger damaged in an accident, so even if you couldn’t tell them apart from a distance, once you saw the finger you knew who was who. This difference is a characteristic of their
a. genotypes.
b. personalities.
c. heterozygous chromosomes.
d. phenotypes.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Application

23. Gene expression refers to the
a. division of the chromosomes in half during the formation of eggs and sperm.
b. passing along of genes that are located close to one another on a chromosome.
c. conversion of genetic instructions into a feature of a living cell.
d. imprinting of particular genes.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

24. Robert and Megan are brother and sister, and both have type O blood. They know that their mother has type A blood, but they don’t know their father’s blood type. Using what they know about their own blood types and their mother’s, they know that their father’s blood type
a. could be A, B, O, or AB.
b. must be O.
c. must be A.
d. could be A or O.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Application

25. An allele that produces a phenotypical trait regardless of whether or not its pair is homozygous or heterozygous is
a. imprinted.
b. dominant.
c. recessive.
d. an SNP.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

26. When either a mother’s or father’s version of a gene is expressed, but not both, we refer to the gene as
a. imprinted.
b. dominant.
c. recessive.
d. an SNP.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

27. Nancy and Cliff had four children who did not have cystic fibrosis, but their fifth child was born with the disease. Cystic fibrosis is carried on a recessive gene. Given what you’ve learned in this chapter, how could this happen?
a. It wasn’t until the fifth child that both parents passed on the allele for this illness.
b. Recessive genes normally skip a generation, but after the parents had five children, the gene was expressed.
c. Their fifth child must have been a boy, which makes it more probable that he would have the illness.
d. Their fifth child must have been a girl, which makes it more probable that she would have the illness.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Application

28. Sarah’s mother has Huntington’s disease, an illness that results from a dominant gene. Her father, on the other hand, does not have the illness. What is the likelihood that Sarah herself will develop the disease?
a. Sarah has no chance of developing the disease, as she would have inherited a healthy allele from her father.
b. Sarah probably has a 50 percent chance of developing the disease, as her mother could have given her either a healthy allele or an allele that produces the illness.
c. Sarah has a 50 percent chance of developing the disease, because her mother would not have the disease herself unless she was homozygous for Huntington’s disease.
d. Sarah has a 25 percent chance of developing the disease, because her father could be a carrier.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

29. Cystic fibrosis is a fatal lung condition that results from a recessive gene. If one parent is a healthy carrier for the condition while the other is not a carrier, what is the likely outcome for any children they might have?
a. The children will be heterozygous for cystic fibrosis, and all will develop the disease.
b. Fifty percent of their children will develop the disease, and the other fifty percent will be carriers.
c. None of the children will have the disease, and none will be carriers.
d. None of the children will have the disease, but they have a fifty percent chance of becoming carriers.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Application

30. Which of the following accurately describes the attraction of bases between strands of DNA?
a. A pairs with T, and C pairs with G
b. A pairs with C, and T pairs with G
c. A pairs with G, and T pairs with C
d. A pairs with U, and T pairs with G
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

31. A group of three bases that provides instructions for the production of a single amino acid is known as a
a. proteome.
b. tripheme.
c. ribosome.
d. codon.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

32. Huntington’s disease, a fatal degenerative movement disorder, results from large numbers of codon repeats in the Huntington gene located on chromosome 4. This means that the
a. extra codon repeats will not impact the individual’s phenotype.
b. affected Huntington gene will be silenced, producing no protein.
c. affected Huntington gene will produce a protein with abnormally large amounts of the amino acid encoded by the extra codons.
d. affected Huntington gene will produce a protein with abnormally small amounts of the amino acid encoded by the extra codons.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Application

33. The proteome is defined as
a. the set of proteins encoded and expressed by the genome.
b. the set of proteins encoded by an individual’s genotype.
c. the rate of gene expression.
d. a species’ profile of mitochondrial DNA.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

34. The human proteome is
a. the same as the proteomes of other primates.
b. the same as the proteomes of other mammals.
c. the same as the proteomes of all living things.
d. unique to our species.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

35. A single human can produce eggs or sperm with more than _________ different combinations of his or her chromosomes.
a. 800
b. 8,000
c. 800,000
d. 8,000,000
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

36. The passing along of genes that are physically close to one another on the same chromosome is known as
a. linkage.
b. crossing over.
c. meiosis.
d. gene expression.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

37. The process in which chromosomes exchange equivalent sections of genetic material is known as
a. linkage.
b. crossing over.
c. meiosis.
d. gene expression.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

38. You were recently introduced to your roommate’s sibling. To your surprise, even though the siblings are the same sex, they look nothing alike. Which of the following is the best explanation of this situation?
a. They must have different parents, as genetic inheritance ensures that they share a significant number of genes.
b. Although they started out very similar genetically, their genotypes have changed during development to make them look very different.
c. Given the number of different combinations of genes possible during reproduction, it may be that the two siblings don’t really share many gene alleles.
d. One has expressed only recessive genes, while the other has not.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Application

39. _________ of the genes found on the X chromosome are duplicated on the Y chromosome.
a. All
b. None
c. Most
d. Some
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

40. A characteristic that results from genes on the X chromosome that are not duplicated on the Y chromosomes is referred to as being
a. recessive.
b. mutated.
c. an SNP.
d. sex-linked.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

41. Most cases of colorblindness result from abnormal recessive genes located on the X chromosome that are not duplicated on the Y chromosome. Which of the following statements accurately predicts the outcome for the children of a father with typical genes and a mother with abnormal genes?
a. Half of the couple’s daughters, but none of their sons, are likely to be colorblind.
b. Half of the couple’s sons, but none of their daughters, are likely to be colorblind.
c. None of the couple’s children are likely to be colorblind.
d. All of the couple’s children are likely to be colorblind.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Application

42. Mutations
a. always have negative outcomes.
b. always have positive outcomes.
c. can have positive, negative, or neutral outcomes.
d. have neither positive nor negative outcomes, because they are always recessive.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

43. A recessive gene allele
a. can only be expressed when paired with a matching allele.
b. can influence a genotype, but not a phenotype.
c. can influence the phenotype of female children, but not male children.
d. can influence a phenotype when it occurs in pairs or on the X chromosome.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Conceptual

44. Queen Victoria of England had a son, Leopold, and a great-grandson, Tsarevich Alexei Nikolaevich Romanov of Russia, both of whom had hemophilia. We can conclude that:
a. Queen Victoria must have had hemophilia, too.
b. Queen Victoria was a carrier for hemophilia.
c. Queen Victoria’s husband, Prince Albert, must have been a carrier.
d. Leopold and Tsarevich Alexei probably developed hemophilia due to a spontaneous mutation, because their female relatives did not have the condition.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Application

45. Tom’s father has hemophilia, but Tom does not have the disease. What are the chances that Tom’s children will have hemophilia?
a. Tom’s sons will almost certainly have it because Tom will have inherited the recessive gene from this father.
b. Tom’s daughters may be carriers, but his sons will not have the gene.
c. All of Tom’s children will be carriers, but it will not be expressed until they have children.
d. None of Tom’s children will be carriers or have the illness because his X gene came from his mother, who is not a carrier.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Application

46. A process that prevents the production of much higher amounts of protein in females than in males is known as
a. X inactivation.
b. imprinting.
c. crossing over.
d. linkage.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

47. Calico cats with two sex chromosomes
a. can be male or female.
b. are almost always male, because the calico condition is sex-linked.
c. are always female, because the calico condition results from x-inactivation.
d. are the result of spontaneous mutations that do not affect the sex chromosomes.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Conceptual

48. Extreme skewing in x-inactivation has been linked with which of the following characteristics in offspring?
a. hemophilia
b. colorblindness
c. Alzheimer’s disease
d. autoimmune diseases
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

49. When variations in a single base are responsible for the difference between two alleles, the resulting condition is known as

When variations in a single base are responsible for the difference between two alleles, the resulting condition is known as
a. X inactivation.
b. an imprinted gene.
c. a single nucleotide polymorphism.
d. a mutation.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

50. Different versions of the APOE gene are correlated with the development of
a. hemophilia.
b. colorblindness.
c. breast cancer.
d. Alzheimer’s disease.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

51. Research has shown that a person’s height is about 81 percent heritable, whereas his or her body mass index (BMI) is about 59 percent heritable. Which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of these findings?
a. The variability we see in a population’s height is more influenced by genetic factors than the variability we see in the population’s weight.
b. Environmental factors account for only 19 percent of a person’s height and 41 percent of a person’s BMI.
c. We cannot make any conclusions about genetic contributions to either height or weight.
d. Knowing the relative genetic contributions to traits such as height or weight does not allow us to compare these two unrelated characteristics of people.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Application

52. Kyle plants a group of seeds in a pot of enriched soil, and provides all the seeds with identical temperature, lighting, and water. When his plants are mature, he notices that they are quite different in height. Which of the following is the best conclusion Kyle could draw from his observations?
a. The differences in the height of his plants are due to equal contributions of environmental and genetic variables.
b. Holding the plants’ environment constant has magnified the influence of genetic differences on the height of the plants.
c. Genetic variables are more influential than environmental variables in determining the height of Kyle’s plants.
d. Kyle lacks sufficient information to draw any scientific conclusions from his observations.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Application

53. In their study of the heritability of autistic traits among Dutch teens, Rosa Hoekstra and her colleagues were careful to choose participants from a variety of backgrounds and circumstances. Why is careful sampling especially important to studies of heritability?
a. The effects of heritability are most obvious in populations that exclude extreme environmental conditions, such as affluent or very poor families.
b. Environmental influences are magnified in extreme environmental conditions, such as among affluent or very poor families.
c. Extremes of environmental conditions, such as affluent or very poor families, tend to magnify the influence of heritability.
d. These precautions are really not relevant, because heritability cannot be assessed experimentally.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Conceptual

54. Compared with non-twin siblings, fraternal twins
a. experience the same level of genetic and environmental influence.
b. have more genes in common.
c. have fewer environmental influences in common.
d. have more environmental influences in common.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Conceptual

55. The Minnesota Study of Twins Raised Apart found support for which of the following conclusions?
a. Identical twins are very similar to each other on a number of traits, regardless of whether the correlation for any particular trait was high or low.
b. Identical twins raised together are very similar to each other on a number of traits, but identical twins raised apart are not.
c. Identical twins are very similar on traits that are highly correlated, like fingerprint ridges, but not similar to each other on traits that are not highly correlated, like nonreligious social attitudes.
d. Identical twins are no more similar to each other on highly correlated traits than fraternal twins and non-twin siblings.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

56. Amber and Rachel are identical twins who were raised together, and Nicole and Kayla are identical twins who were adopted by different families at birth. Based on the findings of the Minnesota Study of Twins Raised Apart, what can we expect to see as these girls grow up?
a. Amber and Rachel will be have more similar nonreligious social attitudes than Nicole and Kayla.
b. Amber and Rachel will show about the same similarities in their nonreligious social attitudes as Nicole and Kayla.
c. Amber and Rachel will show less similarity in their nonreligious social attitudes than Nicole and Kayla.
d. None of the twins will share any substantial similarities in nonreligious social attitudes with her twin.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Application

57. In the Minnesota Study of Twins Reared Apart, identical twins were found to be
a. very similar in all characteristics studied, regardless of whether they were raised together or apart.
b. similar in some characteristics studied, but not all, regardless of whether they were raised together or apart.
c. similar in all characteristics studied only if they were raised together.
d. similar in some characteristics studied, but not all, only if they were raised together.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

58. Two important processes that produce lasting but reversible changes in gene expression are histone modification and __________.
a. cross-linking
b. RNA transcription
c. x-linked gene mapping suppression
d. DNA methylation
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

59. For the first two weeks of a human pregnancy, the developing organism is referred to as a(n)
a. zygote.
b. embryo.
c. blastocyst.
d. fetus.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

60. In the third through eighth weeks of a human pregnancy, the developing organism is referred to as a(n)
a. zygote.
b. embryo.
c. blastocyst.
d. fetus.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

61. During early development, the nervous system develops from which outer germ layer?
a. the endoderm
b. the mesoderm
c. the ectoderm
d. the blastoderm
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

62. Connective tissue, muscles, blood vessels, and bone develop from which middle germ layer?
a. the endoderm
b. the mesoderm
c. the ectoderm
d. the blastoderm
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

63. Internal organs develop from which germ layer?
a. the endoderm
b. the mesoderm
c. the ectoderm
d. the blastoderm
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

64. The neural plate develops along the _________ midline from cells in the _________.
a. dorsal; ectoderm
b. dorsal; mesoderm
c. ventral; ectoderm
d. ventral; endoderm
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

65. Ectoderm cells that do not differentiate into nervous system tissue, including the neural plate, will become
a. muscle and bone.
b. connective tissue.
c. skin.
d. internal organs.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

66. The interior of the neural tube will be retained in the adult brain as the
a. forebrain.
b. ventricles and central canal of the spinal cord.
c. hindbrain.
d. corpus callosum.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

67. During which stage of development do new neurons form connections with other neurons?
a. Stage 1
b. Stage 4
c. Stage 3
d. Stage 6
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

68. Cells that develop into neurons and glia originate in the
a. ventricular zone.
b. radial glia.
c. forebrain.
d. spinal cord.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

69. Progenitor cells that divide to produce another progenitor cell and a migrating cell divide along a cleavage line that is _______ to the surface of the ________ zone.
a. perpendicular; dorsal
b. parallel; ventricular
c. perpendicular; dorsolateral
d. parallel; caudal
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

70. New cells formed at the ventricular zone begin to migrate after the _________ following conception.
a. seventh day
b. seventh week
c. fifth month
d. seventh month
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

71. At the peak of neurogenesis in humans, about how many new neural cells are produced per minute?
a. 10,000
b. 75,000
c. 250,000
d. 500,000
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

72. During migration, most neurons are guided to their ultimate location by special progenitor cells known as
a. mitochondria.
b. radial glia.
c. oligodendrocytes.
d. synapses.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

73. Which of the following statements about radial glia is true?
a. They degenerate when migration is complete.
b. They differentiate into astrocytes.
c. They retain the ability to produce daughter cells.
d. They differentiate into neurons.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

(see Figure 5.15)

74. This figure illustrates which of the following processes?
a. Migrating cells follow radial glia from the ventricular zone to the developing cortex.
b. Progenitor cells located in the ventricular zone produce daughter cells that remain in the ventricular zone or migrate.
c. Developing axons adhere to cell adhesion chemicals on the surface of other cells on route to forming synapses with target cells.
d. Guidepost cells release chemicals that either attract or repel growing axons.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

75. Cells in the outer layers of the cerebral cortex are the ___________ to begin migrating, and they have the _____________ journey to their final destination.
a. first; shortest
b. first; longest
c. last; shortest
d. last; longest
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Conceptual

76. Organization of the ventral neural tube into a motor system is primarily the result of
a. sonic hedgehog.
b. BMP.
c. hox genes.
d. guidepost cells.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

77. Differentiation of the hindbrain occurs along the
a. rostral-caudal axis due to the activity of Hox genes.
b. ventral-dorsal dimension due to the activity of Hox genes.
c. rostral-caudal axis due to the activity of sonic hedgehog.
d. ventral-dorsal dimension due to the activity of BMP.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

78. Hox genes appear to be influential in developing the
a. entire brain.
b. spinal cord and hindbrain, but not the midbrain or forebrain.
c. hindbrain and midbrain, but not the forebrain.
d. spinal cord, but not the brain.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

79. In the development of the cerebral cortex
a. intrinsic genetic factors control all differentiation.
b. extrinsic inducing factors control all differentiation.
c. a combination of intrinsic genetic factors and extrinsic inducing factors control differentiation.
d. neither intrinsic genetic factors nor extrinsic inducing factors appear to play a role in differentiation.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Conceptual

80. Growth cones are defined as
a. the influences of neighboring cells on differentiation.
b. attractant chemicals that guide axon growth and inhibit meiosis.
c. death genes that are expressed when a cell “decides” to die, leading to the formation of exact replacements for that cell.
d. swollen ends of axons and dendrites that help the branch reach its synaptic target.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

81. Long, fingerlike extensions from the core of growth cones are known as
a. microtubules.
b. filopodia.
c. lamellipodia.
d. cell adhesion molecules.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

82. Flat, sheetlike extensions from the core of growth cones are known as
a. microtubules.
b. filopodia.
c. lamellipodia.
d. cell adhesion molecules.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

83. Guidepost cells release chemicals that
a. repel all advancing growth cones.
b. attract all advancing growth cones.
c. can repel or attract advancing growth cones.
d. form cell adhesion molecules.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

84. Axons growing toward the optic chiasm are directed contralaterally or ipsilaterally by
a. cell adhesion molecules.
b. guidepost cells.
c. sonic hedgehog.
d. radial glia.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Application

85. Neurites growing in the same direction often experience
a. fasciculation.
b. apoptosis.
c. anterograde degeneration.
d. retrograde degeneration.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

86. How is the type of neurotransmitter used by a particular neuron determined?
a. The postsynaptic (target) cell determines which neurotransmitter the presynaptic cell will release.
b. The genes of the presynaptic cell determine which neurotransmitter the cell will use.
c. The neurotrophins released by the postsynaptic (target) cell determine the neurotransmitter the presynaptic cell will use.
d. Guidepost cells determine the type of neurotransmitter used in particular systems.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

87. Programmed cell death is known as
a. fasciculation.
b. apoptosis.
c. anterograde degeneration.
d. retrograde degeneration.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

88. Which type of chemical appears to protect cells from apoptosis?
a. cell adhesion molecules
b. inducing proteins
c. neurotrophins
d. sonic hedgehog
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

89. Nerve growth factor (NGF) is a type of
a. cell adhesion molecule.
b. guidepost cell.
c. inducing factor.
d. neurotrophin.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

90. Apoptosis results from the activation of
a. caspases.
b. neurotrophins.
c. sonic hedgehog.
d. inducing proteins.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

91. Neurotrophins prevent apoptosis by inhibiting the activity of
a. caspases.
b. neurotrophins.
c. sonic hedgehog.
d. inducing proteins.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

92. Cell death genes act by
a. stimulating sonic hedgehog.
b. activating caspases.
c. producing nerve growth factor.
d. inhibiting caspases.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

93. Children born with higher than normal concentrations of neurotrophins may be at risk for the development of
a. schizophrenia.
b. autism spectrum disorder.
c. bipolar disorder.
d. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

94. If a child is born with higher than normal concentrations of neurotrophins, we can assume that
a. no significant changes in brain development will occur.
b. the child will have an unusually high IQ.
c. the child’s brain will experience greater than normal apoptosis.
d. the child’s brain will experience less than normal apoptosis.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Conceptual

95. Synaptic pruning
a. is a normal part of brain development.
b. is associated with mental retardation, and results in too few connections.
c. results from insufficient amounts of neurotrophins.
d. results from excess amounts of neurotrophins.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

96. During the development of your four-year-old nephew’s brain, a number of neurons died and many synapses were pruned. As a result, when he is older, he will
a. suffer from intellectual disability
b. probably be totally normal.
c. not be able to learn to talk.
d. have normal speech, but his intellectual functioning will be lower than normal.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Application

97. Experience strengthens existing synapses when
a. pre- and postsynaptic neurons are simultaneously active.
b. activity of the pre- and postsynaptic neurons are not synchronized.
c. activity in the postsynaptic neuron precedes activity in the presynaptic neuron.
d. the pre- and postsynaptic neurons use the same neurotransmitter substances.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

98. Which of the following describes the correct order for myelination from start to finish?
a. forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain, spinal cord
b. hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain, spinal cord
c. spinal cord, forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain
d. spinal cord, hindbrain, midbrain, forebrain
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

99. Myelination occurs in
a. motor systems before it occurs in sensory systems.
b. sensory systems before it occurs in motor systems.
c. interneurons before either motor or sensory systems.
d. interneurons, sensory systems, and motor systems all at the same time.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

100. In humans, myelination is not complete until
a. the beginning of the fetal period of prenatal development.
b. birth.
c. 2 years of age.
d. early adulthood.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

101. The completion of myelination
a. does not have observable behavioral effects, as the process is completed before birth in humans.
b. might account for the ability of children to learn to read and write.
c. coincides with the onset of puberty and children’s ability to think in abstract terms.
d. might account for superior decision-making in adults compared to teens.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Conceptual

102. In the forebrain, myelination proceeds
a. simultaneously from inferior to superior and from posterior to anterior.
b. simultaneously from superior to inferior and from anterior to posterior.
c. first from posterior to anterior, then from inferior to superior.
d. first from inferior to posterior, then from anterior to posterior.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

103. A Hebb synapse is one that
a. has been pruned.
b. has not fully matured.
c. participates in vision.
d. has been strengthened by simultaneous activity.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

104. Which of the following processes does not experience a critical window?
a. imprinting
b. language
c. vision
d. mathematical reasoning
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

105. Hubel and Wiesel’s research with vision in kittens demonstrated that experience has _________ effects on the organization of the visual cortex _________.
a. no; during the critical period
b. substantial; during the critical period
c. substantial; throughout life
d. no; throughout life
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

106. One-year-old Joey’s eyes have been crossing whenever he tries to focus on anything close to him. The doctor has told his parents that he has to have glasses immediately and wear them whenever he is awake. Why would the doctor say that?
a. Joey has to get used to wearing glasses as a child in order to wear them later in life.
b. Joey has to wear glasses now so that he won’t have to wear them later in life.
c. Joey’s eyesight is still developing, and if he doesn’t wear glasses during this critical period, his vision could be permanently affected.
d. Joey’s doctor is probably an alarmist, and it really isn’t that important.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Application

107. According to research by Elenor Ames, Romanian orphans showed optimum recovery from early childhood deprivation when they were adopted prior to the age of
a. six months.
b. one year.
c. three years.
d. six years.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

108. Critical periods may end as a response to
a. the presence or absence of neurotrophins.
b. the presence of caspases.
c. anterograde degeneration.
d. an absence of cell adhesion molecules.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Conceptual

109. Researchers believe that the conclusion of myelin growth spurts in areas associated with language learning probably indicates
a. the beginning of a period of enhanced language learning, as the brain is now mature enough to manage this new type of input.
b. that a child will be mentally retarded, as learning will be adversely impacted.
c. the onset of adulthood.
d. the end of a critical period for language learning.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

110. When the caudal part of the neural tube fails to close, what disorder typically results?
a. anencephaly
b. Down syndrome
c. Williams syndrome
d. spina bifida
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

111. When the rostral part of the neural tube fails to close, what disorder typically results?
a. anencephaly
b. Down syndrome
c. Williams syndrome
d. spina bifida
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

112. Disjunction of the 21st chromosome that can lead to Down syndrome has been found to be related to
a. paternal age.
b. maternal age.
c. multiple codon repeats on the X chromosome.
d. the inability to metabolize phenylalanine.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

113. Fragile-X syndrome usually occurs as a result of
a. paternal age.
b. maternal age.
c. unusually high codon repeats on the X chromosome.
d. the inability to metabolize phenylalanine.
ANSWER: c
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

114. In which of the following conditions can the failure to follow a carefully prescribed diet result in intellectual disability?
a. Williams’ syndrome
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. fragile X syndrome
d. phenylketonuria (PKU)
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

115. The leading known nongenetic cause of intellectual disability is
a. alcohol use by pregnant women.
b. marijuana use by the partner of a pregnant woman.
c. prenatal exposure to lead-based paints.
d. environmental asbestos exposure during pregnancy.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

116. In a study of mothers who used combinations of alcohol, marijuana, and cocaine during pregnancy, it was found that they produced children who
a. could not be distinguished from those produced by mothers who used alcohol only.
b. had less gray matter than other children for the first few weeks of life, but who were subsequently quite normal.
c. had less white matter than other children.
d. had less gray matter than other children at least until age 10-13 years.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

117. Twelve-year-old Heather has a smaller head circumference and less gray matter thickness than typical children of her same age, sex, and size. It is most likely that
a. Heather’s mother used alcohol and other drugs during her pregnancy.
b. Heather’s mother has PKU.
c. Heather has PKU.
d. Heather has fragile X syndrome.
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Application

118. Cortical thickening peaks around the age of
a. 18 months.
b. 11-12 years.
c. 18-25 years.
d. 45 years.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

119. The human brain is considered mature during which developmental period?
a. early childhood
b. adolescence
c. late childhood
d. early adulthood
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

120. Schizophrenia is associated with
a. increased cortical thickening during young adulthood.
b. increased cortical thickening during adolescence.
c. abnormally large amounts of cortical thinning during young adulthood.
d. abnormally large amounts of cortical thinning during adolescence.
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

121. Brain weight begins to decline significantly in humans past the age of _________ years.
a. 20
b. 45
c. 65
d. 80
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

122. An individuals’ risk for developing Alzheimer’s disease has been found to be ________ with educational attainment and adult mental activity.
a. negative correlated
b. positively correlated
c. caused by
d. unrelated to
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

123. According to Robert Friedland (2014), healthy brain activity is associated with all but which of the following activities?
a. being married
b. physical fitness
c. prayer
d. watching television
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

124. Neurogenesis in adulthood
a. does not appear to occur in humans.
b. may protect the brain from the effects of stress.
c. only occurs in telomeres, the tips at the end of chromosomes.
d. is negative correlated with levels of physical activity.
ANSWER: b
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

125. Aging is associated with reduced rates of neurogenesis in the ________ in a wide range of mammalian species.
a. hypothalamus
b. amygdala
c. visual cortex.
d. hippocampus
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

126. Which of the following may help to protect the brain from the effects of stress?
a. cellular migration
b. synaptic pruning
c. increased levels of neurotrophins.
d. neurogenesis
ANSWER: d
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

127. Which of the following substances appears to enhance adult neurogenesis in rats?
a. antidepressant medications
b. sonic hedgehog
c. alcohol
d. marijuana
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

128. The _______ hypothesis suggests that the cognitive resources a person possesses may offset age-related decreases in functioning
a. multiple reserve
b. synaptic pruning
c. sundowning
d. anterograde bracing
ANSWER: a
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

Completion

(see Figure 5.15)

129. In this illustration, migrating cells from the ____________________ zone wrap around ____________________ in order to find their correct location in the developing cortex.
ANSWER: ventricular, radial glia (see Figure 5.15)
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

(see Figure 5.17)

130. As the developing axon grows towards its target, it may stick to ____________________ on the surface of other cells (a), ____________________ by following other axons (b), or be influenced by chemicals release by ____________________ (c and d).
ANSWER: cell adhesion molecules (CAMs); fasciculate; guidepost cells
cell adhesion molecules, fasciculate, guidepost cells
CAMs, fasciculate, guidepost cells
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

131. Boxes a–d illustrate several influences on growing axons that help them reach their target cells. Briefly describe the process illustrated in each box.
a. ______________________________________________________________
b. ______________________________________________________________
c. ______________________________________________________________
d. ______________________________________________________________
ANSWER: Refer to Figure 5.17.
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

Subjective Short Answer

132. Describe what it means to be an imprinted gene.
ANSWER: Imprinted genes do not follow the rules of dominance. Instead, only one allele is expressed. In the case of some genes, only the allele originating from the father is expressed, whereas in the case of other genes, only the copy from the mother is expressed.
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

133. Why do we need the process of X chromosome inactivation?
ANSWER: X chromosome inactivation occurs when one X chromosome from a pair found in a female’s cell is silenced during development. If it did not occur, females would produce double the amount of some proteins compared with males, whose one X chromosome has many genes that are not duplicated on their Y chromosomes.
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

134. Many researchers are concerned that the reported similarities among families that adopt children might distort the results of adoption studies that compare environmental and genetic influences. Why is this a valid concern?
ANSWER: Even if a trait is highly heritable, it still interacts with the environment. If adoptive families provide very similar environments, genetic influences can be magnified. This situation would be analogous to raising genetically diverse plants in identical settings of nutrients, light, and water. Any differences you see in the plants under these conditions will be mostly genetic.
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Conceptual

135. Describe the dorsal–ventral differentiation of the neural tube.
ANSWER: In the dorsal-ventral differentiation of the neural tube, neurons in the ventral
half develop into motor neurons, and neurons in the dorsal half develop into sensory
neurons
DIFFICULTY: Difficult
KEYWORDS: Factual

136. Describe the process of differentiation of ectodermal cells into skin and neural tissue.
ANSWER: Without contact with other cells or inducing factors, ectodermal cells will differentiate into neural tissue. In order to develop into skin, ectodermal cells must be exposed to bone morphogenetic protein (BMP).
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

(see Figure 5.15)

137. This figure illustrates an important step in the process of neural development. Briefly describe the process depicted here.
ANSWER: Refer to Figure 5.15.
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

138. Describe the process of apoptosis.
ANSWER: Apoptosis, or programmed cell death, occurs when cell death genes are activated and caspases are expressed. These enzymes destroy DNA and other proteins essential to cell life. Apoptosis can be prevented when a cell obtains sufficient amounts of neurotrophins.
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Factual

139. Why does a critical period end?
ANSWER: Although we don’t know exactly why a critical period ends, this may occur due to changes in the availability of neurotrophins, or the conclusion of myelination of a particular system like the language areas of the human brain.
DIFFICULTY: Moderate
KEYWORDS: Conceptual

140. What is spina bifida?
ANSWER: Spina bifida is a condition that results from failure of the caudal neural tube to close. Most individuals with this condition experience difficulty walking. A major cause of spina bifida appears to be inadequate maternal intake of folic acid during pregnancy.
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

141. What are the possible benefits of adult neurogenesis?
ANSWER: Although neurogenesis in adulthood involves many fewer cells compared to prenatal and early childhood development, this process might be essential to learning, memory, and protection from stress.
DIFFICULTY: Easy
KEYWORDS: Factual

Essay

142. Rosa Hoekstra and her colleagues (2007, p. 372) reported that “individual differences in endorsement on autistic traits show substantial heritability (57%).” Define heritability, and discuss the proper use of the concept and the implications of Hoekstra et al.’s statement.
ANSWER: Answer will vary

143. Summarize the major events that occur in synaptogenesis.
ANSWER: Answer will vary

144. What is a “Hebb synapse,” and how does this concept help us understand the segregation between input from each eye in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the adult animal?
ANSWER: Answer will vary