ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY PERSPECTIVES 6TH ED BY DAVID - TEST BANK

ABNORMAL PSYCHOLOGY PERSPECTIVES 6TH ED BY DAVID – TEST BANK

 

Instant Download – Complete Test Bank With Answers

 

 

Sample Questions Are Posted Below

 

Chapter 04: Psychological Assessment and Research Methods

 

 

Chapter 04 Multiple Choice Questions

 

1. Psychological assessment involves
2. A) comparing an individual’s symptom profile to each of the DSM-5 disorders.
3. B) administering the appropriate diagnostic tests to an individual with suspected abnormal behaviour.
4. C) conducting a structured interview to determine the correct diagnosis for an individual who is displaying abnormal behaviour.
5. D) systematic gathering and evaluation of information pertaining to an individual with suspected abnormal behaviour.
6. E) identifying psychological, social and biological factors that are causing an individual’s mental illness.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-01

Page-Reference: 65

Skill: Factual, Conceptual

 

Answer: D) systematic gathering and evaluation of information pertaining to an individual with suspected abnormal behaviour.

 

2. Psychological assessment
3. A) is a process that reveals the correct diagnosis to a researcher or clinician.
4. B) determines the biological, psychological and social causes of disorder that is causing distress and/or impairment.
5. C) provides data that are placed within the context of history, referral information, behavioural observations, and life of an individual.
6. D) is gradually replacing the unstructured interview as researchers and clinicians become increasingly concerned with accuracy and precision in diagnosis.
7. E) plays the role in research that the clinical interview plays in clinical assessment.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-02

Page-Reference: 65

Skill: Factual, Conceptual

 

Answer: C) provides data that are placed within the context of history, referral information, behavioural observations, and life of an individual.

 

3. Claire completes a psychological test of personality type twice, the second time 4 weeks after the first. The correlation between her two test scores was very low. Based on this information, the test can be said to exhibit
4. A) low alternate form reliability.
5. B) low split-half reliability.
6. C) high test-retest reliability.
7. D) low test-retest reliability.
8. E) high alternate form reliability.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-03

Page-Reference: 65

Skill: Application

 

Answer: D) low test-retest reliability.

 

4. According to the text, which of the following is NOT true of alternate form reliability estimates?
5. A) They are used to circumvent the problem of improvement due to practice which can occur in estimates of test-retest reliability.
6. B) They require the creation of two forms of the same test, in which the questions are phrased slightly differently but are intended to assess the same construct as the first.
7. C) They are used to circumvent the problem of familiarity with questions which can occur in estimates of test-retest reliability.
8. D) A low correlation between the two forms demonstrates good alternate-form reliability.
9. E) A high correlation between the two forms demonstrates good alternate-form reliability.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-04

Page-Reference: 65

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: D) A low correlation between the two forms demonstrates good alternate-form reliability.

 

5. Which of the following is a measure of internal consistency?
6. A) Coefficient gamma
7. B) Coefficient beta
8. C) Alternate form
9. D) Coefficient alpha
10. E) Beta correlation

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-05

Page-Reference: 65

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: D) Coefficient alpha

 

6. A particular questionnaire is intended to measure musical enjoyment. One of the questions is “Do you enjoy listening to music?” This item can be said to have
7. A) internal consistency.
8. B) face validity.
9. C) criterion validity.
10. D) construct validity.
11. E) predictive validity.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-06

Page-Reference: 66

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: B) face validity.

 

7. A researcher wants to know to what extent are all the questions within her test measuring the same thing. She can assess this by evaluating __________ the of her test or by using __________.
8. A) split-half reliability; face validity
9. B) face validity; test-retest reliability
10. C) construct validity; coefficient alpha
11. D) split-half reliability; coefficient alpha
12. E) predictive validity; internal consistency

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-07

Page-Reference: 65

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: D) split-half reliability; coefficient alpha

 

8. Without __________, you cannot have __________.
9. A) reliability; validity
10. B) face validity; criterion validity
11. C) construct validity; face validity
12. D) split half reliability; face validity
13. E) predictive validity; face validity

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-08

Page-Reference: 65

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: A) reliability; validity

 

9. According to the text, construct validity
10. A) is especially useful when the construct to be measured is clearly defined rather than abstract.
11. B) is important because some qualities are easier to recognize than to define.
12. C) refers to the importance of a test within a specific theoretical framework.
13. D) means that the items on a test resemble characteristics associated with the concept being tested.
14. E) requires that a test’s content include a representative sample of behaviours thought to be related to the construct.

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-1-09

Page-Reference: 66

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: C) refers to the importance of a test within a specific theoretical framework.

 

10. Which of the following is NOT true of the actuarial approach?
11. A) Those who endorse it would not rely on intuition in making a decision.
12. B) Those who endorse it argue that there is no substitute for the clinician’s experience and personal judgment in coming to decisions.
13. C) Those who endorse it argue that a more objective standard is needed.
14. D) It tends to be more efficient in terms of making predictions in a variety of situations.
15. E) Those who endorse it rely on statistical procedures and formal rules in evaluating data.

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-1-10

Page-Reference: 66

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: B) Those who endorse it argue that there is no substitute for the clinician’s experience and personal judgment in coming to decisions.

 

11. Which of the following are problems with the actuarial approach?
12. A) Many of the equations and algorithms found in the literature do not generalize to practice settings.
13. B) Those who endorse it argue that there is no substitute for the clinician’s experience and personal judgment in coming to decisions.
14. C) There is often more than one approach to choose from, yielding different results.
15. D) Actuarial decisions are often affected by subjective influences upon decision-making.
16. E) The clinical approach is more efficient in making predictions in a variety of situations.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-11

Page-Reference: 66

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: A) Many of the equations and algorithms found in the literature do not generalize to practice settings.

 

12. A(n) __________ assesses brain function by measuring electrical impulses by way of electrodes placed on parts of the scalp.
13. A) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
14. B) EEG (electroencephalogram)
15. C) PAT (positron axial tomography)
16. D) PET (positron emission tomography)
17. E) CAT (computerized axial tomography)

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-12

Page-Reference: 67

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: B) EEG (electroencephalogram)

 

13. In the procedure known as __________, a narrow band of X-rays is projected through the head, and produces a number of images of the brain which are later combined.
14. A) EEG (electroencephalogram)
15. B) CAT (computerized axial tomography)
16. C) PET (positron emission tomography)
17. D) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
18. E) PAT (positron axial tomography)

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-13

Page-Reference: 67

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: B) CAT (computerized axial tomography)

 

14. Although it is relatively old technology, __________ provides an effective method of detecting seizure disorders
15. A) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
16. B) CAT (computerized axial tomography)
17. C) PAT (positron axial tomography)
18. D) PET (positron emission tomography)
19. E) EEG (electroencephalogram)

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-14

Page-Reference: 67

Skill: Factual, application

 

Answer: E) EEG (electroencephalogram)

 

15. The resolution of the image produced by (an) __________ can be improved by injecting a substance to enhance contrasts between different sorts of tissue.
16. A) PAT (positron axial tomography)
17. B) PET (positron emission tomography)
18. C) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
19. D) EEG (electroencephalogram)
20. E) CAT (computerized axial tomography)

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-1-15

Page-Reference: 67

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: E) CAT (computerized axial tomography)

 

16. Which of the following is a way in which CT scans have been used to better understand how the brain works in abnormal behaviour?
17. A) by examining changes in structural abnormalities before and after treatment of a disorder.
18. B) by examining changes in structural abnormalities before and after an episode of psychopathology.
19. C) by examining stability of structural abnormalities following cessation of medication.
20. D) by examining stability of structural abnormalities over the course of day.
21. E) by examining gender differences in structural abnormalities.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-16

Page-Reference: 67

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: A) by examining changes in structural abnormalities before and after treatment of a disorder.

 

17. According to the text, which of the following is NOT true of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?
18. A) It is a noninvasive technique.
19. B) fMRI is a recent modification of the MRI.
20. C) It reveals both the structure and functioning of the brain.
21. D) It is slightly dangerous, as it involves the use of high-energy radiation (X-rays).
22. E) It involves producing a strong magnetic field around the patient’s head.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-17

Page-Reference: 68

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: D) It is slightly dangerous, as it involves the use of high-energy radiation (X-rays).

 

18. Which of the following is NOT true of positron emission tomography?
19. A) It involves the use of isotopes with half-lives of minutes to hours.
20. B) It allows a researcher to measure a variety of biological activities in the brain.
21. C) It is capable of showing the distribution of various neurotransmitters within the brain.
22. D) It produces a static image of the brain’s anatomy, as do CAT scans and MRIs.
23. E) It involves the injection or inhalation of radioisotopes.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-18

Page-Reference: 68

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: D) It produces a static image of the brain’s anatomy, as do CAT scans and MRIs.

 

19. The explicit purpose of neuropsychological tests is to
20. A) assess abilities in the verbal and non-verbal intelligence domains.
21. B) determine the relationships between behaviour and brain function.
22. C) generate special scores that the tests of ordinary psychologists cannot.
23. D) identify ability profiles that correspond to known mental illnesses.
24. E) accurately distinguish “organic” from developmental brain dysfunction.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-19

Page-Reference: 69

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: B) determine the relationships between behaviour and brain function.

 

20. Which of the following is true of the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt test?
21. A) The main problem with the test is that it produces many false positives.
22. B) It consists of a series of cards containing lines and shapes, which individuals are asked to copy and then draw from memory.
23. C) It is rarely used at present, though it was commonly employed in the past.
24. D) There are currently no standardized scoring systems for this test.
25. E) It is very difficult to administer.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-20

Page-Reference: 69

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: B) It consists of a series of cards containing lines and shapes, which individuals are asked to copy and then draw from memory.

 

21. The most popular neuropsychological test battery is the
22. A) Halstead-Reitan.
23. B) Thematic Apperception.
24. C) Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt.
25. D)
26. E) Luria-Nebraska.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-21

Page-Reference: 69

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: A) Halstead-Reitan.

 

22. It is important to administer a neuropsychological test battery when the patient
23. A) is feeling most fatigued so one can determine performance under the most challenging circumstances.
24. B) is at the peak of their mental disorder so one can determine performance under the most challenging circumstances.
25. C) is relatively stable medically and emotionally so one can determine performance under optimal circumstances.
26. D) is relatively stable in their personality so one can determine performance under optimal circumstances.
27. E) is hospitalized so one can determine performance under the most challenging circumstances.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-22

Page-Reference: 70

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: C) is relatively stable medically and emotionally so one can determine performance under optimal circumstances.

 

23. Which one of the following is NOT a dimension assessed by the mental status examination?
24. A) appearance
25. B) sensorium
26. C) risk of harm to self
27. D) insight
28. E) ability to detect sarcasm

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-23

Page-Reference: 71

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: E) ability to detect sarcasm

 

24. Which of the following is NOT suggested by the text as a problem with the unstructured interview?
25. A) It has poor validity.
26. B) It has poor reliability.
27. C) Clinicians using this type of interview may only look for information that confirms their hypotheses.
28. D) Clients often dislike participating in them.
29. E) The theoretical paradigm of the clinician greatly influences the type of information gathered.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-24

Page-Reference: 71

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: D) Clients often dislike participating in them.

 

25. According to the text, the most frequently used semistructured interview in psychiatric settings is the
26. A) Semistructured Mental Interview.
27. B) Mental Status Examination.
28. C) Psychological Functioning Examination.
29. D) The Diagnostic Interview Schedule.
30. E) Psychiatric Status Interview.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-25

Page-Reference: 71

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: B) Mental Status Examination.

 

26. According to the text, which of the following is NOT true of structured interviews?
27. A) They reduce the concern over the subjective judgments of the interviewer.
28. B) They have clear rules governing the evaluation of responses.
29. C) They tend to jeopardize rapport.
30. D) They are very specific in the order and wording of questions.
31. E) They are less reliable then unstructured interviews.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-26

Page-Reference: 71

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: E) They are less reliable then unstructured interviews.

 

27. According to the text, the most widely used structured clinical interview is the
28. A) Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IIIR (SCID).
29. B) Structured Clinical Interview for Psychiatric Illness (SCIPI).
30. C) The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS-IV).
31. D) The DSM-5.
32. E) Mental Status Examination.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-27

Page-Reference: 71

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: C) The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS-IV).

 

28. The first scientific study of intellectual functioning was conducted by __________, to test the hypothesis that intelligence has a hereditary aspect.
29. A) Binet
30. B) Lafayette
31. C) Wechsler
32. D) Simon
33. E) Galton

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-28

Page-Reference: 72

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: E) Galton

 

29. Sir Francis Galton believed that intelligence could best be measured by studying __________, such as an attribute known later as __________.
30. A) spatial abilities; spatial intelligence
31. B) arithmetic skills; mathematical intelligence
32. C) verbal abilities; verbal intelligence
33. D) physiological abilities; sensory intelligence
34. E) physical abilities; athletic intelligence

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-29

Page-Reference: 72

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: D) physiological abilities; sensory intelligence

 

30. The first widely accepted and successful test of intelligence was designed by __________ to predict __________.
31. A) Stanford; academic performance
32. B) Binet; academic performance
33. C) Simon; job performance
34. D) Galton; future criminal behaviour
35. E) Wechsler; verbal intelligence

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-30

Page-Reference: 72

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: B) Binet; academic performance

 

31. Which of the following is not true of Binet’s work, according to the text?
32. A) He was commissioned by the Parisian school board to develop a test that would identify children who might need special education.
33. B) Binet tested the hypothesis that intelligence has a hereditary aspect.
34. C) His work developed into the Stanford-Binet scales, now in their fifth edition.
35. D) He used the intelligence quotient (IQ), determined by dividing a child’s performance by the child’s chronological age and multiplying by 100.
36. E) He was the first to use a large sample of subjects to establish norms to describe intelligence.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-31

Page-Reference: 72

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: B) Binet tested the hypothesis that intelligence has a hereditary aspect.

 

32. The first widely used intelligence test for adults, the __________, was developed by __________.
33. A) Simon Adult Intelligence Scale; Simon
34. B) Adult Intelligence Index; Wechsler
35. C) Stanford-Binet Scale; Stanford
36. D) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale; Wechsler
37. E) Adult Intelligence Index; Stanford University

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-32

Page-Reference: 72

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: D) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale; Wechsler

 

33. Aside from his adult intelligence test, Wechsler also developed
34. A) both the Wechsler Intelligence Test for Children (WISC) and the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI).
35. B) the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI).
36. C) both the Stanford-Binet Scale of Intelligence (SBI) and the Wechsler Intelligence Test for Children (WISC).
37. D) the Stanford-Binet Scale of Intelligence (SBI).
38. E) the Wechsler Intelligence Test for Children (WISC).

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-33

Page-Reference: 74

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: A) both the Wechsler Intelligence Test for Children (WISC) and the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI).

 

34. The typical correlation between IQ scores and academic performance is in the range of
35. A) .30-.50.
36. B) .50-.70.
37. C) .70-.80.
38. D) .90-1.00.
39. E) 0-.30.

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-1-34

Page-Reference: 74

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: B).50-.70.

 

35. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding IQ?
36. A) It is the most stable of the psychological traits.
37. B) It can predict important life outcomes, such as income and choice of life partner.
38. C) It is moderately to strongly related to academic achievement.
39. D) It has been criticized as simply measuring academic achievement.
40. E) It can reliably identify those with learning disabilities.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-35

Page-Reference: 74

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: B) It can predict important life outcomes, such as income and choice of life partner.

 

36. Projective tests generally have their roots in
37. A) psychoanalytic principles.
38. B) behaviorist principles.
39. C) cognitive principles.
40. D) existential principles.
41. E) humanistic principles.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-36

Page-Reference: 74

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: A) psychoanalytic principles.

 

37. Lisa is seeing a clinical psychologist, who has given her a psychological test in which she examines cards with ambiguous inkblots on them. Lisa is likely completing the
38. A) Thematic Apperception Test.
39. B) Rorschach Inkblot Test.
40. C) Freudian Inkblot Test.
41. D) Halstead-Reitan Battery.
42. E) Psychoanalytic Inkblot Test.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-37

Page-Reference: 75

Skill: Application

 

Answer: B) Rorschach Inkblot Test.

 

38. A clinician has given a client the Rorschach Inkblot Test, and is employing a standardized scoring system created to increase the reliability and validity of the test. They are likely what system?
39. A) the Murray-Exner system
40. B) the Exner system
41. C) the Exner-Murray system
42. D) the Hunsley system
43. E) the Murray system

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-38

Page-Reference: 75

Skill: Application

 

Answer: B) the Exner system

 

39. Heather is seeing a clinical psychologist, who has asked her to construct stories about cards depicting ambiguous social interactions. Heather is likely completing the
40. A) Ambiguous Circumstances Exam (ACE).
41. B) Murray-Morgan Apperception Test (MMAT).
42. C) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).
43. D) Rorschach Inkblot Test.
44. E) Sentence Completion Test.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-39

Page-Reference: 76

Skill: Application

 

Answer: C) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).

 

40. Which of the following is NOT true of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)?
41. A) It is multiphasic because it assesses many aspects of personality.
42. B) Items were only chosen for inclusion if people known to have the characteristic the scale is measuring responded differently to those items than did those who did not have the characteristic.
43. C) The results of the MMPI-2, the newest version, give a DSM-5 diagnosis.
44. D) Many of its items appear to have little face validity, meaning that it is difficult to tell what the question is attempting to measure.
45. E) It was originally published in 1943 by Hathaway and McKinley.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-40

Page-Reference: 76

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: C) The results of the MMPI-2, the newest version, give a DSM-5 diagnosis.

 

41. Which of the following is one of the MMPI validity scales?
42. A) the Z scale
43. B) the J scale
44. C) the F scale
45. D) the R scale
46. E) the T scale

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-41

Page-Reference: 77

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: C) the F scale

 

42. Which of the following changes was made in the MMPI-II, as compared to the original MMPI?
43. A) The test was standardized using a representative group of patients at a Minnesota state hospital.
44. B) Test items aimed at identifying religious beliefs were added.
45. C) The test was standardized on a much larger number of people, as a relatively small number was used in the original.
46. D) Many of the validity scales, such as the F-scale, were removed.
47. E) The test was standardized on a much more representative sample based on census information.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-42

Page-Reference: 79

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: E) The test was standardized on a much more representative sample based on census information.

 

43. According to the text, the Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory (MCMI) has been criticized in the past because it
44. A) consistently underestimates the severity of personality disorders and overdiagnoses somatoform disorders.
45. B) consistently underestimates the severity of depressive symptoms and overdiagnoses anxiety disorders.
46. C) consistently underestimates the severity of personality disorders and overdiagnoses depressive syndromes.
47. D) consistently underestimates the severity of depressive syndromes and overdiagnoses personality disorders.
48. E) consistently underestimates the severity of depressive syndromes and overdiagnoses somatoform disorders.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-43

Page-Reference: 79

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: D) consistently underestimates the severity of depressive syndromes and overdiagnoses personality disorders.

 

44. Walter Mischel argued that personality tests are flawed because
45. A) people fail to give accurate self-reports because of the response set of social desirability.
46. B) people respond to demand characteristics – they respond as they feel the tester would like them to.
47. C) the concept of personality is an illusion.
48. D) the majority have been shown to have extremely low reliability.
49. E) of their erroneous assumption that personality characteristics are stable.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-44

Page-Reference: 80

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: E) of their erroneous assumption that personality characteristics are stable.

 

45. John is a clinical psychologist who is gathering information on his client, Steve, by taping him while he works. This sort of observation is called
46. A) analogue observation.
47. B) self-monitoring.
48. C) electronic observation.
49. D) in vivo observation.
50. E) actual observation.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-45

Page-Reference: 81

Skill: Application

 

Answer: D) in vivo observation.

 

46. Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with observational methods?
47. A) Reactivity may compromise validity.
48. B) People may change their behaviour if they know they are being observed or recorded.
49. C) Observers may begin to develop their own theories of behaviours mid-way through the observation.
50. D) Observer drift may occur.
51. E) Observation is expensive in terms of time and scoring procedures.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-46

Page-Reference: 81

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: C) Observers may begin to develop their own theories of behaviours mid-way through the observation.

 

47. When the psychological problems of a patient are fairly well known, __________ tests are appropriate.
48. A) narrow band
49. B) broad band
50. C) objective
51. D) self-report
52. E) projective

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-47

Page-Reference: 82

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: A) narrow band

 

48. One of the primary goals of clinical research is the __________ of clinical phenomena.
49. A) observation
50. B) prediction
51. C) description
52. D) explanation
53. E) control

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-48

Page-Reference: 82

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: C) description

 

49. According to the text, which of the following allows for the greatest confidence in interpreting and generalization of results?
50. A) The quasi-experiment
51. B) The experiment
52. C) The correlational study
53. D) The psychological test
54. E) The semi-experiment

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-49

Page-Reference: 83

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: B) The experiment

 

50. In an experiment, the __________ group is exposed to a variable which is manipulated, called the __________ variable.
51. A) control; dependent
52. B) experimental; dependent
53. C) experimental; control
54. D) control; independent
55. E) experimental; independent

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-50

Page-Reference: 83

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: E) experimental; independent

 

51. When differences in some dependent variable are found to occur as a function of manipulation of the independent variable, a(n) __________ is obtained.
52. A) experimental effect
53. B) random effect
54. C) pseudo effect
55. D) controlled effect
56. E) correlation

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-51

Page-Reference: 83

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: A) experimental effect

 

52. Several clinical psychologists are conducting a study about the treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder. Before receiving the various treatments, the participants were assessed on a number of psychological measures. According to the terminology in the text, these measures would be referred to as
53. A) early tests.
54. B) advance tests.
55. C) experimental tests.
56. D)
57. E)

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-52

Page-Reference: 84

Skill: Application

 

Answer: D) pretests.

 

53. In a study of the effects of a certain antipsychotic drug, the control group receives a pill that does not actually contain the drug. This group has received a __________.
54. A) dependent variable
55. B) double-blind
56. C) placebo
57. D) pretest
58. E) pseudo-treatment

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-53

Page-Reference: 84

Skill: Application

 

Answer: C) placebo

 

54. In the TADS experiment, described in the text, the researchers used a double-blind procedure, meaning that
55. A) both the experimenters and the participants knew what group of adolescents were getting which treatment.
56. B) only the participants themselves knew which treatment they were receiving.
57. C) only the parents of the adolescents involved in the study were aware of which treatment they were receiving.
58. D) neither the participants nor the experimenters knew who was getting medication and who was getting a placebo.
59. E) only the experimenters knew who was getting medication and who was getting a placebo.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-54

Page-Reference: 84

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: D) neither the participants nor the experimenters knew who was getting medication and who was getting a placebo.

 

55. When evaluating an experiment, one needs to consider its external validity, or
56. A) the degree to which the results of the study can be generalized to other individuals in different settings.
57. B) the size of the experimental effect reported in the study.
58. C) the degree to which the changes in the independent variables are a result of the manipulation of the dependent variable.
59. D) the degree to which alternative explanations for the results of the study can be ruled out.
60. E) the degree to which the changes in the dependent variables are a result of the manipulation of the independent variable.

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-1-55

Page-Reference: 84

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: A) the degree to which the results of the study can be generalized to other individuals in different settings.

 

56. A confound occurs when
57. A) two or more independent variables exert their influence on a dependent variable at different times.
58. B) an experimental investigation lacks external validity.
59. C) two or more independent variables exert their influence on a dependent variable at the same time.
60. D) the results of an experiment are not significant.
61. E) one independent variable exerts an influence on a dependent variable.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-56

Page-Reference: 85

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: A ) two or more independent variables exert their influence on a dependent variable at the same time.

 

57. According to the text, the development of classification systems such as the DSM was largely based upon
58. A)
59. B) experiments.
60. C) correlational studies.
61. D) case studies.
62. E) quasi-experiments.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-57

Page-Reference: 85

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: E) quasi-experiments.

 

58. Which of the following is NOT true of correlational studies?
59. A) A correlation can be either positive or negative.
60. B) Behaviour is not manipulated, but rather quantitatively measured and analyzed statistically.
61. C) They are frequently carried out where experimental manipulation is impossible or unethical.
62. D) They measure the degree of relationship between two variables.
63. E) They generally do not require a large number of participants.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-58

Page-Reference: 85

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: E) They generally do not require a large number of participants.

 

59. If two variables are found not to be related to one another, then the correlation coefficient of the relationship between these two variables should be close to
60. A) zero
61. B) +0.63
62. C) -0.50
63. D) -1.00
64. E) +1.00

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-59

Page-Reference: 85-86

Skill: Application

 

Answer: A) zero

 

60. Psychologists are usually most interested in correlation coefficients that are greater than or equal to
61. A) 0
62. B) +1.00
63. C) +0.30
64. D) +0.30 or -0.30
65. E) -0.30

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-1-60

Page-Reference: 85

Skill: Application

 

Answer: D) +0.30 or -0.30

 

61. If two variables, A and B, are related then we can say all of the following except
62. A) there is a relationship between A and B.
63. B) some other variable, C, may be causing both A and B.
64. C) A might be causing B.
65. D) A causes B.
66. E) B might be causing A.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-61

Page-Reference: 86

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: D) A causes B.

 

62. According to the text, the case study is a(n) __________ approach used in the investigation of abnormal behaviour.
63. A) singular
64. B) nomothetic
65. C) individual
66. D) ideographic
67. E) unitary

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-62

Page-Reference: 86

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: D) ideographic

 

63. Which of the following was NOT presented by the text as a criticism of the case study method of investigating abnormal behaviour?
64. A) The clinician’s theoretical background has been shown to influence the information gathered.
65. B) It does not lead to generation of new hypotheses.
66. C) It does not employ the scientific method.
67. D) It cannot demonstrate cause and effect.
68. E) One cannot be certain of the generalizability of the findings.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-63

Page-Reference: 86

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: B) It does not lead to generation of new hypotheses.

 

64. Though based on the investigation of an individual subject, the _____ design avoids many of the criticisms of the case study by using experimentally accepted procedures.
65. A) nomothetic
66. B) ideographic
67. C) reversal
68. D) quasi-experimental
69. E) single-subject

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-1-64

Page-Reference: 87

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: C) reversal

 

65. Linda is clinical psychologist studying the incidence and prevalence of schizophrenia in a certain population. She is carrying out a(n) ____ study.
66. A) longitudinal
67. B) experimental
68. C) etiological
69. D) epidemiological
70. E) ideographic

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-65

Page-Reference: 87

Skill: Application

 

Answer: D) epidemiological

 

66. Because of the potential confound of shared environment in _____ studies, behavioural geneticists have often turned to other methods such as adoption studies.
67. A) family
68. B) behavioural genetics
69. C) cross-fostering
70. D) psychological
71. E) adoption

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-66

Page-Reference: 88

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: A) family

 

67. Leanne is conducting a study in which she is examining the difference in rates of bipolar disorder between monozygotic and dizygotic twins pairs. The term most frequently used to describe this sort of study is
68. A) sibling study.
69. B) adoption study.
70. C) twin study.
71. D) matched study.
72. E) zygotic study.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-67

Page-Reference: 89

Skill: Application

 

Answer: C) twin study.

 

68. There has been a great deal of research, using a wide variety of methods, examining the concordance rates for disorders such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. These studies have generally revealed higher concordance rates in ______ than in __________.
69. A) monozygotic twins; adopted relatives
70. B) adopted relatives; biological relatives
71. C) biological relatives; adopted relatives
72. D) dizygotic twins; monozygotic twins
73. E) monozygotic twins; dizygotic twins

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-68

Page-Reference: 89

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: E) monozygotic twins; dizygotic twins

 

69. A musical child grows older and begins to hang out with other musically-gifted peers, and eventually decides to enter the Faculty of Music when he goes to University. This is known as
70. A) passive gene-environment correlation.
71. B) evocative gene-environment correlation.
72. C)
73. D) cross-fostering.
74. E) active gene-environment correlation.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-69

Page-Reference: 91

Skill: Applied

 

Answer: E) active gene-environment correlation.

 

70. Experimental results concerning the efficacy of a particular treatment are labelled “statistically significant” when
71. A) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance and the treatment has been demonstrated to be likely to work in “real life.”
72. B) the treatment results have been compared to non-disturbed samples.
73. C) the treatment has been demonstrated to work in “real life.”
74. D) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance.
75. E) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance and the treatment has been demonstrated to work in “real life.”

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-1-70

Page-Reference: 92

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: D) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance.

 

71. A treatment’s practical utility, which does not follow automatically from statistical significance, is referred to as _____ significance.
72. A) treatment
73. B) therapeutic
74. C) clinical
75. D) normative
76. E) practical

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-1-71

Page-Reference: 92

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: C) clinical

 

72. According to the text, __________ compares treatment results to non-disturbed samples, in order to evaluate the social validity of a particular treatment.
73. A) social comparison
74. B) experimental significance evaluation
75. C) normative comparison
76. D) clinical significance evaluation
77. E) practical comparison

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-1-72

Page-Reference: 92

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: C) normative comparison

 

73. Evocative gene-environment correlation occurs
74. A) When a person with certain inherited characteristics reacts to their environment in a certain way.
75. B) When a person with certain inherited characteristics actively selects certain environments.
76. C) When a person’s heritable behaviours elicit a certain environmental response.
77. D) When the environment changes one’s underlying genes.
78. E) When a person with certain heritable characteristics passes on those characteristics to their offspring.

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-1-73

Page-Reference: 91

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: C) When a person’s heritable behaviours elicit a certain environmental response.

 

74. A passive gene-environment correlation occurs
75. A) When a person’s biological parents transmit certain genotypes and early environmental experiences that are consistent with those genotypes.
76. B) When a person with certain inherited characteristics reacts to their environment in a certain way.
77. C) When the environment changes a person’s underlying genes without their awareness.
78. D) When grandparents pass on their genotype to their grandchildren.
79. E) When a person’s genotype alters their environment without their awareness.

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-1-74

Page-Reference: 91

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: A) When a person’s biological parents transmit certain genotypes and early environmental experiences that are consistent with those genotypes.

 

75. What is an effect size?
76. A) The calculation that a researcher performs to determine the sample size for a study.
77. B) A statistic that reflects the strength of an intervention’s effects.
78. C) A statistic that reflects the extent to which a confounding variable affected the outcome of an intervention study.
79. D) The extent to which a study has had an effect on government/social policy.
80. E) The extent to which a study has had an impact on its research participants.

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-1-75

Page-Reference: 92

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: B) A statistic that reflects the strength of an intervention’s effects.

 

 

Chapter 04 True/False Questions

 

1. Psychological assessment is a central component of psychological testing.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-76

Page-Reference: 65

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: b. False

 

2. Alternate-form reliability refers to the degree of reliability within a test.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-77

Page-Reference: 65

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: b. False

 

3. Coefficient alpha and split-half reliability are both methods for evaluating the internal consistency of a test.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-78

Page-Reference: 65

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: a. True

 

4. Face validity goes one step beyond content validity in its requirement that a test’s content include a representative sample of behaviours thought to be related to the construct the test is designed to measure.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-79

Page-Reference: 66

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: b. False

 

5. Bill is a clinician who feels that when it comes to evaluating and interpreting data about a patient, there is no substitute for the clinician’s personal experience and judgment. Bill is most likely endorsing the actuarial approach to prediction.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-80

Page-Reference: 66

Skill: Application

 

Answer: b. False

 

6. A test cannot be deemed reliable without having established validity.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-81

Page-Reference: 66

Skill: Application

 

Answer: b. False

 

7. It’s important for psychologists to focus upon mental and/or psychological variables, and to exclude medical and physical health variables from their assessment.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-82

Page-Reference: 66

Skill: Conceptual, application

 

Answer: b. False

 

8. One of the oldest and most well established brain imaging techniques is the electroencephalogram (EEG), which reads the brain’s electrical activity via electrodes placed on the scalp.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-83

Page-Reference: 67

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: a. True

 

9. CT and MRI provide a static image of the brain whereas PET and fMRI produce a dynamic image of the functioning brain.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-84

Page-Reference: 67-68

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: a. True

 

10. The Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test is the oldest and most commonly used neuropsychological test.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-85

Page-Reference: 69

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: a. True

 

11. The main problem with the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt test is that it produces many false negatives.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-86

Page-Reference: 71

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: a. True

 

12. The RBANS consists of six subtests: immediate memory, delayed memory, visuo-spatial ability, language, attention, and interpretation bias.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-87

Page-Reference: 70

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: b. False

 

13. The semi-structured interview can include the flexibility and rapport advantages of an unstructured interview while reducing the problems of subjectivity and bias.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-88

Page-Reference: 71

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: a. True

 

14. The Mental Status Examination is the most frequently used structured clinical interview.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-89

Page-Reference: 71

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: b. False

 

15. The first scientific study of intellectual functioning was conducted by French psychologist Alfred Binet.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-90

Page-Reference: 72

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: b. False

 

16. The Exner system was developed in an attempt to increase the reliability and validity of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT).

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-91

Page-Reference: 75

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: b. False

 

17. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is based on the contrasted- groups method of ascertaining validity.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-92

Page-Reference: 77

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: a. True

 

18. The results of an MMPI-II assessment give a clinician a DSM-5 diagnosis.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-93

Page-Reference: 77

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: b. False

 

19. One criticism of the MMPI-II is that it has no scales devoted to an assessment of faking or lying on the part of the respondents.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-94

Page-Reference: 77

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: b. False

 

20. The change in behaviour often seen when people are aware of being observed is often called reactivity.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-95

Page-Reference: 81

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: a. True

 

21. Random assignment is a procedure that ensures that each participant in an experiment has an equal probability of being in either the experimental or control groups.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-96

Page-Reference: 83

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: a. True

 

22. In an experiment, the control group experiences all aspects of the experiment in a manner identical to the experimental group, except for the manipulation of the dependent variable.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-97

Page-Reference: 83

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: b. False

 

23. When two variables exert their influence at the same time, making it impossible to accurately establish the causal role of either variable, a confound is said to occur.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-98

Page-Reference: 85

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: a. True

 

24. Generally, psychologists are interested in correlation coefficients only if they are greater than +/-.65.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-99

Page-Reference: 85

Skill: Application

 

Answer: b. False

 

25. A researcher aiming to demonstrate that stable, internal and global (self-blame) attributions for negative events cause depression must achieve a correlation of +0.50 or greater between measures of attribution and depression symptoms.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-100

Page-Reference: 85

Skill: Application

 

Answer: b. False

 

26. The case study is both the oldest and most currently used approach to the study of abnormal behaviour.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-101

Page-Reference: 86

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: b. False

 

27. Linda is conducting a study in which neither the subjects nor the experimenters know who is getting medication and who is getting the placebo. This study design is most frequently called a double-unaware design.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-2-102

Page-Reference: 84

Skill: Application

 

Answer: b. False

 

28. Incidence refers to the frequency of a disorder in a population at a given point or period of time.

a True

b False

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-2-103

Page-Reference: 87

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: b. False

 

 

Chapter 04 Essay Questions

 

1. Define psychological assessment. In your answer, discuss and show full knowledge of the following concepts: assessment tools, clinical interview, psychological testing, reliability, and validity.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-3-104

Page-Reference: 71

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: Psychological assessment refers to the systematic gathering and evaluation of information pertaining to an individual for whom a specific question about psychological functioning needs answering. Assessment requires the clinician to place and interpret scores and other data within the context of the person’s history, referral information, behavioural observations and life story of that person in order to provide a comprehensive understanding of that individual. Assessment can be carried out with a wide variety of techniques, typically including a clinical interview and a number of psychological tests. If relevant to the referral question, biological assessments (e.g., EEG, brain imaging techniques) may be required. Issues of reliability and validity pertain to each of the assessment tools selected. Specific issues of reliability and validity pertain to specific tools – for example unstructured clinical interviews are often needed in order to establish trust and rapport, but this tool has problems of reliability and validity stemming from the subjectivity and bias that may be present, such as when the clinician’s initial assumptions about the problem guide her questions and other questions – that would shed light on important aspects of the situation – are left out.

 

2. Compare and contrast actuarial prediction vs. clinical prediction. Include advantages and disadvantages for each. Based on discussion in class, analogy from other concepts in the chapter or your own creative problem solving abilities, try to identify a compromise between these approaches or a solution for the practitioner that reaps the best of both approaches.

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-3-105

Page-Reference: 66

Skill: Factual, conceptual, application

 

Answer: The actuarial and clinical judgment methods are used in making predictions about the patient – typically some future behaviour (e.g., offending vs. not offending; relapsing vs. not) that is of importance to society. The actuarial approach to prediction relies exclusively on statistical procedures, empirical methods and formal rules for evaluating data. The clinical approach relies upon the clinician’s experience and personal judgment in making the prediction. Those who endorse the actuarial approach argue that it is more objective, unbiased and based on scientific validation (especially when the database is large) as well as being more efficient, which is important when there are many decisions to be made. The research evidence has unequivocally favored the actuarial approach over clinical judgment. Those who favor clinical judgment point to the fact that many of the equations and algorithms found in the literature do not generalize to clinical practice settings or that there are too many particular cases that arise in practice that cannot be anticipated by the creators of the “one-size-fits-all” algorithm. A potential solution would involve clinicians being trained in the actuarial methods, and then coming to some consensus as to situations that call for “clinical override” based on experience or judgment. Another potential solution would involve a technique that might be called “structured clinical judgment” – which is really a hybrid of the two methods. Research findings are used to identify the important dimensions of decision- making and judgment is used to make decisions within each dimension.

 

3. Briefly define any THREE of the following: test-retest reliability; alternate-form reliability; internal consistency; split-half reliability; coefficient alpha.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-3-106

Page-Reference: 65

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: Test-retest reliability = the degree to which a test yields the same results when it is given more than once to the same person

Alternate-form reliability = the degree to which two alternate forms of a test agree (provide similar results)

Internal consistency = the degree of reliability within a test

Split-half reliability = a measure of internal consistency; often evaluated by comparing responses on odd- and even-numbered test items

Coefficient alpha = a measure of internal consistency; calculated by averaging the intercorrelations of all the items on a given test

 

4. Briefly define any TWO of the following: face validity, content validity, criterion validity, construct validity.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-3-107

Page-Reference: 67-68

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: Face validity means that the items on a test resemble the characteristics associated with the concept being tested.

Content validity is one step beyond face validity in requiring that the test’s content include a representative sample of behaviours thought to be related to the construct the test is designed to measure.

Criterion validity is said to have been achieved when the test results match what is known in the population (i.e., a depression test has criterion validity if it discriminates between depressed and non-depressed people.

Construct validity is concerned with the importance of a test within a specific theoretical framework; especially useful for abstract constructs.

 

5. List any TWO brain imaging techniques discussed in the text. Briefly describe what kind of information each technique gathers, and how it does so.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-3-108

Page-Reference: 70

Skill: Application

 

Answer: Electroencephalogram (EEG): uses electrodes placed on the scalp; measures brain’s electrical activity

Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT): a narrow band of X-rays is projected through the head onto (scintillation) crystals, and a computer combines a number of the resulting images; measures brain structures (static image of the brain)

Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI): a magnetic field is produced around the patient’s head, then radio waves are introduced and turned off, causing electrons to return to their original configuration and in doing so emit radio waves at a frequency which can be detected; the introduction of a small magnetic gradient to the field allows the location of the source to be determined; measures both the structure and functioning of the brain (static image of the brain)

Positron Emission Tomography (PET): radiation is detected outside the head; radiation is inhaled or injected, and the radiation is given off and detected by the PET equipment; measures brain functioning (dynamic image of the brain)

 

6. Briefly describe any ONE projective test.

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-3-109

Page-Reference: 77-78

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: Rorschach Inkblot Test: created by Rorschach; asked to describe what they see in the blot; Exner system developed to increase reliability and validity by standardizing scoring

 

Thematic Apperception Test: created by Murray and Morgan; drawings on cards of ambiguous social interactions which individuals create stories about; questions about the reliability and validity of scoring techniques

 

7. What is an analogue observational setting? Why is it used? What is subject reactivity and should one be concerned with it in an analogue observational setting?

 

Difficulty: 3

QuestionID: 04-3-110

Page-Reference: 82

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: An analogue observational setting is created by clinicians (often behaviourists) in order to directly observe a client’s behaviour. It is an artificial setting in an office or laboratory set up to elicit specific classes of behaviour in individuals. It is used because in vivo observation is difficult; it is impractical often because of time constraints and money. Subject reactivity refers to the change in behaviour often seen when people know they are being observed. It is a concern for analogue observational settings as well as in vivo.

 

8. What is random assignment? In what sort of research design is it found?

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-3-111

Page-Reference: 85

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: Random assignment is a procedure that ensures each subject has an equal probability of being in either the experimental or control group, guaranteeing the equivalence of these two groups. It is found in experiments.

 

9. Briefly state the difference between a quasi-experimental study and an experiment upon which of these have the DSMs been primarily based?

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-3-112

Page-Reference: 86

Skill: Conceptual

 

Answer: A quasi-experimental study is one in which the subjects in the experimental group are NOT randomly assigned but are selected on the basis of certain characteristics, and in which there is no manipulation of independent variables. Conversely: an experimental study is one in which the subjects are randomly assigned to experimental and control groups, and there is a manipulation of independent variable(s). The DSMs have been primarily based upon quasi-experimental studies.

 

10. What sort of research design is the ABAB design? What is it also known as? Briefly describe the ABAB design.

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-3-113

Page-Reference: 89

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: The ABAB design is a single-subject design. It is also known as the reversal design. In this sort of study, the first A phase requires the quantification of behavior in its natural environment, prior to any intervention. In the B phase, the treatment is introduced. The next A phase constitutes the reversal, during which the treatment is stopped. The treatment is provided again in the final B phase.

 

11. What is epidemiology? What do the terms incidence and prevalence refer to?

 

Difficulty: 1

QuestionID: 04-3-114

Page-Reference: 83

Skill: Factual

 

Answer: Epidemiology is the study of the incidence and prevalence of disorders in a population. Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disorder in a particular population over a specified time period. Prevalence is the frequency of a disorder in a population at a given point in time.

 

12. Describe the components of a cognitive-behavioural assessment. What are factors that can affect the accuracy of the data?

 

Difficulty: 2

QuestionID: 04-3-115

Page-Reference: 81-82

Skill: Factual, Conceptual

 

Answer: Cognitive-behavioural assessment consists of an assessment of the thinking processes and behaviours that may be contributing to problematic behaviour. Given that thought processes are covert (i.e., cannot be overtly observed), the assessor has to use self-report measures to detect these processes. For example, the Dysfunctional Attitudes Scale and the Automatic Thoughts Questionnaire are common and easy to administer in assessment and also during treatment (e.g., before and after therapy). The textbook points out that questionnaires wherein respondents are asked to report on their typical way of thinking have important limitations. Specifically, these measures may not be entirely accurate because they rely on retrospective recall, which can be biased, particularly when individuals have conditions that can lead to information processing biases (depression, for example). One way to get around this is to have clients keep track of their thoughts in a thought record – a type of diary. However, these have issues too as they can be somewhat cumbersome to carry around. Thought records are also vulnerable to recall biases if an individual backfills them—i.e., completes them hours or days after an event has occurred. In recent years, a number of smartphone apps have been developed that address the issues associated with conventional cognitive-behavioural assessment. These apps require clients to respond to brief questions about their thoughts and behaviour in real time, in their day-to-day life.