Auditing & Assurance Services A Systematic Approach William Messier Jr 10e - Test Bank

Auditing & Assurance Services A Systematic Approach William Messier Jr 10e - Test Bank   Instant Download - Complete Test Bank With Answers     Sample Questions Are Posted Below   Chapter 05 Evidence and Documentation   True / False Questions 1. Audit evidence includes only written information used by the auditor in arriving at …

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Auditing & Assurance Services A Systematic Approach William Messier Jr 10e – Test Bank

 

Instant Download – Complete Test Bank With Answers

 

 

Sample Questions Are Posted Below

 

Chapter 05

Evidence and Documentation

 

True / False Questions

1. Audit evidence includes only written information used by the auditor in arriving at an opinion about the fairness of financial statements.

True    False

 

2. The auditor gathers audit evidence to test management’s assertions.

True    False

 

3. Management assertions fall into four main categories.

True    False

 

4. The classification assertion refers to transactions and events being recorded in the correct accounting period.

True    False

 

5. The completeness assertion refers to ensuring that transactions and events that should have been recorded actually have been recorded.

True    False

 

6. The cutoff assertion relates to whether transactions and events have been recorded in the correct accounting period.

True    False

 

7. Audit procedures are designed to test management assertions.

True    False

 

8. The relevance of audit evidence or specific audit procedures depends on the assertion being tested.

True    False

 

9. The auditor must use his or her professional judgment to determine the amount of audit evidence to be gathered.

True    False

 

10. The sufficiency of evidence refers to the quality of audit evidence.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

11. A confirmation is used to

A. Verify the inventory count is correct.

 

B. Verify that a control is being observed.

 

C. Verify a representation from a third party.

 

D. Verify that a specific trend is correct.

 

12. Which of the following elements ultimately determines the amount of audit work that is necessary in the circumstances to afford a reasonable basis for an opinion?

A. Auditor judgment.

 

B. Materiality.

 

C. Relative risk.

 

D. Reasonable assurance.

 

13. Which of the following is an essential factor in evaluating the sufficiency of evidence? The evidence must

A. Be well documented and cross-referenced in the audit documents.

 

B. Be based on sources that are considered reliable.

 

C. Bear a direct relationship to the audit assertion.

 

D. Be persuasive enough to enable the auditor to form an opinion.

 

14. Which set of assertions is tested when, during completion of the audit, the audit partner conducts a final review of the format of the entity’s balance sheet?

A. Assertions about classes of transactions and events.

 

B. Assertions about account balances at the period end.

 

C. Assertions about presentation and disclosure.

 

D. None of these.

 

15. In testing plant and equipment balances, an auditor may physically inspect new additions listed on the summary of plant and equipment transactions for the year. This procedure is designed to obtain evidence concerning management’s assertions about classes of transactions and events, and specifically, which assertion?

A. Occurrence.

 

B. Cutoff.

 

C. Authorization.

 

D. Classification.

 

16. Which assertions may be tested for the “account balances” category of management assertions?

A. Existence, accuracy, rights and obligations, completeness.

 

B. Existence, rights and obligations, completeness, valuation and allocation.

 

C. Occurrence, rights and obligations, completeness, valuation and allocation.

 

D. Occurrence, accuracy, rights and obligations, completeness.

 

17. Which assertions may be tested for the “transactions and events” category of management assertions?

A. Existence, completeness, rights and obligations, accuracy, cutoff and classification.

 

B. Occurrence, completeness, rights and obligations, accuracy, cutoff and classification.

 

C. Occurrence, completeness, authorization, accuracy, cutoff and classification.

 

D. Existence, rights and obligations, accuracy, authorization, and completeness.

 

18. Which assertions may be tested for the “presentation and disclosure” category of management assertions?

A. Existence, rights and obligations, cutoff and classification, completeness, accuracy and valuation.

 

B. Occurrence, rights and obligations, existence, accuracy and valuation, cutoff and classification.

 

C. Occurrence, completeness, classification and understandability, cutoff and classification.

 

D. Occurrence, rights and obligations, completeness, classification and understandability, accuracy and valuation.

 

19. Tracing is used primarily to test which of the following assertions about classes of transactions?

A. Occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Cutoff.

 

D. Classification.

 

20. Vouching is used primarily to test which of the following assertions about classes of transaction?

A. Occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Authorization.

 

D. Classification.

 

21. In designing written audit programs, an auditor should plan specific audit procedures to test

A. Timing of audit procedures.

 

B. Cost-benefit of gathering evidence.

 

C. Selected audit techniques.

 

D. Management assertions.

 

22. Footing is an example of

A. Recalculation.

 

B. Confirmation.

 

C. Inquiries.

 

D. Analytical procedures.

 

23. In determining whether transactions have been recorded, the direction of the audit testing should start from the

A. General ledger balances.

 

B. Adjusted trial balance.

 

C. Original source documents.

 

D. General journal entries.

 

24. To test for unsupported entries in the ledger, the direction of audit testing should start from the

A. Ledger entries.

 

B. Journal entries.

 

C. Externally generated documents.

 

D. Original source documents.

 

25. Which of the following presumptions does not relate to the appropriateness of audit evidence?

A. The more effective the internal control system, the more assurance it provides about the accounting data and financial statements.

 

B. An auditor’s opinion, to be economically useful, is formed within a reasonable time and based on evidence obtained at a reasonable cost.

 

C. Evidence obtained from independent sources outside the entity is more reliable than evidence secured solely within the entity.

 

D. The independent auditor’s direct personal knowledge, obtained through observation and inspection, is more persuasive than information obtained indirectly.

 

26. Of the following, which is the least persuasive type of audit evidence?

A. Documents mailed by outsiders to the auditor.

 

B. Correspondence between the auditor and third party vendors.

 

C. Copies of company sales invoices inspected by the auditor.

 

D. Computations made by the auditor.

 

27. The third general auditing standard requires that due professional care be exercised in the performance of the examination and the preparation of the report. Due professional care deals with what is done by the independent auditor and how well it is done. For example, due care in the matter of audit documents requires that audit documents’

A. Format be neat and orderly and include both a permanent file and a general file.

 

B. Content be sufficient to provide support for the auditor’s report, including the auditor’s representation as to compliance with auditing standards.

 

C. Ownership is determined by the legal statutes of the state where the auditor practices.

 

D. Preparation is the responsibility of assistants whose work is reviewed by seniors, managers, and partners.

 

28. Which of the following show the detailed general ledger accounts that make up a financial statement category on the auditor’s working trial balance?

A. Account analyses.

 

B. Supporting schedules.

 

C. Control accounts.

 

D. Lead schedules.

 

29. The permanent (continuing) file of an auditor’s working papers most likely would include copies of the

A. Bank statements.

 

B. Debt agreements.

 

C. Lead schedules.

 

D. Attorney’s letters.

 

30. An example of audit evidence with a medium level of reliability is

A. Scanning.

 

B. Recalculation.

 

C. Observation.

 

D. All of these.

 

31. Audit documentation prepared on audits of public entities is the property of the

A. Shareholders.

 

B. Auditor.

 

C. Management of the entity being audited.

 

D. SEC.

 

32. All of the following are typically in the current file except:

A. Adjusting journal entries.

 

B. Copies of the audit report.

 

C. Chart of accounts.

 

D. Lead schedules.

 

33. You are auditing a store that sells merchandise. Some of the store merchandise is held on consignment. Which account balance assertion for inventory should you be most concerned about verifying?

A. Existence or occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Rights and obligations.

 

D. Valuation or allocation.

 

34. You are auditing a manufacturing company that has a large production facility. Some of the production equipment is held through lease agreements. Which of the following is the account balance assertion you would be most concerned about?

A. Existence or occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Rights and obligations.

 

D. Accuracy.

 

35. Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to verify management’s assertion of completeness?

A. Compare a sample of shipping documents to related sales invoices.

 

B. Observe the entity’s distribution of payroll checks.

 

C. Confirm a sample of recorded receivables by direct communication with the debtors.

 

D. Review standard bank confirmations for indications of kiting.

 

36. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of audit procedures?

A. To detect all errors or fraudulent activities.

 

B. To comply with generally accepted accounting principles.

 

C. To gather corroborative evidence about management’s assertions.

 

D. To verify the accuracy of the balance sheet account balances.

 

37. Procedures specifically outlined in an audit program are designed primarily to

A. Assess risk for planning purposes.

 

B. Detect all errors or fraudulent activities.

 

C. Test internal control systems.

 

D. Gather evidence about management’s assertions.

 

38. Which statement concerning audit evidence is not valid?

A. The auditor is seldom convinced beyond all doubt with respect to all aspects of the financial statements being audited.

 

B. The auditor performs tests to collect convincing evidence that the financial statements are not misstated.

 

C. The auditor weighs the cost of obtaining evidence with its usefulness.

 

D. The auditor considers the amount of risk present in deciding the nature and extent of evidence to be collected.

 

39. Each of the following might, by itself, form a valid basis for an auditor to reduce substantive testing except for the:

A. Difficulty and expense involved in testing a particular item.

 

B. Assessment of control risk at a low level.

 

C. Low inherent risk involved.

 

D. Relationship between the cost of obtaining evidence and its usefulness.

 

40. Of the following, the most reliable type of evidence typically is:

A. Confirmation.

 

B. Inspection of records and documents.

 

C. Reperformance.

 

D. Observation.

 

41. Which of the following presumptions is correct about the reliability of audit evidence?

A. Information obtained indirectly from outside sources is the most reliable audit evidence.

 

B. To be reliable, audit evidence should be convincing rather than persuasive.

 

C. Reliability of audit evidence refers to the amount of corroborative evidence obtained.

 

D. An effective internal control system provides more reliable audit evidence.

 

42. Which of the following types of documentary evidence should the auditor consider to be the most reliable?

A. A sales invoice issued by the entity and supported by a delivery receipt from an outside trucker.

 

B. Confirmation of an account payable balance mailed by and returned directly to the auditor.

 

C. A check issued by the company and bearing the payee’s endorsement that is included with the bank statement mailed directly to the auditor.

 

D. A working paper prepared by the entity’s controller and reviewed by the entity’s treasurer.

 

43. Which of the following is the least persuasive documentation in support of an auditor’s opinion?

A. Schedules of details of physical inventory counts conducted by the entity.

 

B. Notation of auditor’s inferences drawn from ratios and trends.

 

C. Notation of appraisers’ conclusions documented in the auditor’s working papers.

 

D. Lists of negative confirmation requests for which no response was received by the auditor.

 

44. Which of the following statements is generally correct about the appropriateness of audit evidence?

A. The more effective the internal control, the more assurance it provides about the reliability of the accounting data and financial statements.

 

B. Appropriateness of audit evidence refers to the amount of corroborative evidence obtained.

 

C. Information obtained indirectly from independent outside sources is more persuasive than the auditor’s direct personal knowledge obtained through observation and inspection.

 

D. Appropriateness of audit evidence refers only to audit evidence obtained from outside the entity.

 

45. Which of the following types of audit evidence is the most persuasive?

A. Prenumbered internal purchase order forms.

 

B. Auditee worksheets supporting cost allocations.

 

C. Bank statements obtained from the auditee.

 

D. Auditee personnel responses to auditor inquiries.

 

46. Following are several statements regarding accounting records or audit documentation. Which of the statements is correct?

A. Accounting records belong to the auditee.

 

B. Documentation of an auditor’s understanding of the entity’s internal control system is not necessary.

 

C. Audit documents may be regarded as a substitute for the company’s accounting records.

 

D. The independent auditor may discard audit documents after two years.

 

47. Audit documents record the results of the auditor’s evidence-gathering procedures. When preparing audit documents, the auditor should remember that

A. Audit documents should be kept on the client’s premises so that the client can have access to them for reference purposes.

 

B. Audit documents should be the primary support for the financial statements being examined.

 

C. Audit documents should be considered as a substitute for the company’s accounting records.

 

D. Audit documents should be designed to facilitate the review and supervision of work done by auditors assigned to the engagement.

 

48. Audit documents that record the procedures used by the auditor to gather evidence should be

A. Considered the primary support for the financial statements being examined.

 

B. Viewed as the connecting link between the accounting records and the financial statements.

 

C. Designed in an orderly fashion to facilitate the review of audit work by the senior, manager, and partner on the engagement.

 

D. Retained until the audited entity ceases to be a client.

 

49. In creating lead schedules for an audit engagement, what financial information is needed to begin?

A. Interim financial information, such as third quarter sales, net income, and inventory and receivables balances.

 

B. Specialized journal information, such as the invoice and purchase order numbers of the last few sales and purchases of the year.

 

C. General ledger information, such as account numbers, prior-year account balances, and current year unadjusted information.

 

D. Adjusting entry information, such as deferrals and accruals and reclassification journal entries.

 

50. Audit documentation

A. Must be in electronic form.

 

B. Must be in paper form only.

 

C. Is not required, but is strongly recommended.

 

D. May be in paper, electronic, or some other form.

 

51. Based on conversations with the owner-manager of an audit client, the auditor ascertained that the company’s primary motivation is to avoid paying income taxes. Based on this motivation, which account balance assertion for ending inventory will the auditor be most concerned about verifying?

A. Existence or occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Rights and obligations.

 

D. Observation.

 

52. Your audit client is under intense pressure to meet an earnings target. Which transaction assertion for transactions within the purchasing process are you most concerned with?

A. Existence or occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Rights and obligations.

 

D. Presentation and disclosure.

 

53. You are concerned with unrecorded transactions in the purchasing cycle. Which audit procedure are you most likely to use when auditing purchases?

A. Vouching transactions in accounting records to vendor invoices.

 

B. Tracing vendor invoices to accounting records.

 

C. Recalculation of vendor invoice amounts.

 

D. Confirmation of customer accounts.

 

54. The following statements were made in a discussion of audit evidence between two CPAs. Which statement is not valid concerning audit evidence?

A. “I am seldom convinced beyond all doubt with respect to all aspects of the statements being examined.”

 

B. “I would not undertake that procedure because at best the results would only be persuasive and I’m looking for convincing evidence.”

 

C. “I evaluate the degree of risk involved in deciding the kind of evidence I will gather.”

 

D. “I evaluate the usefulness of the evidence I can obtain against the cost of obtaining it.”

 

55. Which of the following statements concerning audit evidence is correct?

A. Appropriate evidence supporting management’s assertions should be convincing rather than persuasive.

 

B. Effective internal controls contribute little to the reliability of the evidence created within the entity.

 

C. The cost of obtaining evidence is not an important consideration to an auditor in deciding what evidence should be obtained.

 

D. A company’s accounting data cannot be considered sufficient audit evidence to support the financial statements.

 

56. The permanent audit file usually includes

A. Working trial balance.

 

B. Organizational chart.

 

C. Audit plan.

 

D. Audit programs.

 

57. The current audit file usually includes

A. Working trial balance.

 

B. Organizational chart.

 

C. Accounting manual.

 

D. Copies of important contracts.

 

58. All audit documentation should have a heading, which includes

A. Name of the company under audit.

 

B. Title of the working paper.

 

C. Company’s year-end date.

 

D. All of these.

 

59. The audit working papers belong to

A. The company under audit.

 

B. The government.

 

C. The audit firm.

 

D. They are public record documents.

 

60. Which of the following are ordinarily designed to detect possible material monetary errors in the financial statements?

A. Tests of controls.

 

B. Analytical procedures.

 

C. Computer controls.

 

D. Post-audit review of audit documents.

 

61. An auditor’s decision either to apply analytical procedures as substantive procedures or to perform tests of transactions and account balances usually is determined by

A. Availability of data aggregated at a high level.

 

B. Relative effectiveness and efficiency of the tests.

 

C. Timing of tests performed after the balance sheet date.

 

D. Auditor’s familiarity with industry trends.

 

62. A company sells a particular product only in the last month of its fiscal year. The company uses commission agents for such sales and pays them 6% of their net sales 30 days after the sales are made. The agents’ sales were $10 million. Experience indicates that 10% of the sales are usually not collected and 2% are returned in the first month of the new year. The auditor would expect the year-end balance in the accrued commissions payable account to be

A. $528,000.

 

B. $540,000.

 

C. $588,000.

 

D. $600,000.

 

63. Which of the following nonfinancial information would an auditor most likely consider in performing analytical procedures during the planning phase of an audit?

A. Turnover of personnel in the accounting department.

 

B. Objectivity of audit committee members.

 

C. Square footage of selling space.

 

D. Management’s plans to repurchase stock.

 

64. A not-for-profit organization published a monthly magazine that had 15,000 subscribers on January 1, 2013. The number of subscribers increased steadily throughout the year and at December 31, 2013, there were 16,200 subscribers. The annual magazine subscription cost was $10 on January 1, 2013 and was increased to $12 for new members on April 1, 2013. Subscriptions are paid in full at the beginning of the member term. An auditor should expect that the revenue from subscriptions for the year ended December 31, 2013, would be approximately

A. $179,400.

 

B. $171,600.

 

C. $164,400.

 

D. $163,800.

 

65. Analytical procedures performed in the overall review stage of an audit suggest that several accounts have unexpected relationships. The results of these procedures most likely would indicate that

A. Fraud exists within the relevant accounts.

 

B. Internal control activities are not operating effectively.

 

C. Additional tests of details are required.

 

D. The communication with the audit committee should be revised.

 

66. Which of the following is not a typical analytical procedure?

A. Study of relationships of the financial information with relevant nonfinancial information.

 

B. Comparison of the financial information with similar information regarding the industry in which the entity operates.

 

C. Comparison of recorded amounts of major disbursements with appropriate invoices.

 

D. Comparison of the financial information with budgeted amounts.

 

67. Analytical procedures may be classified as being primarily which of the following?

A. Tests of controls.

 

B. Substantive procedures.

 

C. Tests of ratios.

 

D. Detailed tests of balances.

 

68. An abnormal fluctuation in gross profit that might suggest the need for extended audit procedures for sales and inventories would most likely be identified in the planning phase of the audit by the use of

A. Tests of transactions and balances.

 

B. A preliminary review of internal controls.

 

C. Specialized audit programs.

 

D. Analytical procedures.

 

69. An example of an analytical procedure is the comparison of

A. Financial information with similar information regarding the industry in which the entity operates.

 

B. Recorded amounts of major disbursements with appropriate invoices.

 

C. Results of a statistical sample with the expected characteristics of the actual population.

 

D. EDP generated data with similar data generated by a manual accounting system.

 

70. Analytical procedures used in planning an audit should focus on identifying

A. Material weaknesses in internal control.

 

B. The predictability of financial data from individual transactions.

 

C. The various assertions that are embodied in the financial statements.

 

D. Areas that may represent specific risks relevant to the audit.

 

71. Analytical procedures are

A. Never required.

 

B. Required for planning, substantive testing, and overall review of the financial statements.

 

C. Required for planning and overall review of the financial statements.

 

D. Required during planning only.

 

72. As a result of analytical procedures conducted during the planning phase, the independent auditor determines that the gross profit percentage has declined from 30% in the preceding year to 20% in the current year. The auditor should

A. Express an opinion that is qualified due to the inability of the company to continue as a going concern.

 

B. Evaluate management’s performance in causing this decline.

 

C. Require footnote disclosure.

 

D. Consider the possibility of an error in the financial statements.

 

73. The auditor generally gives most emphasis to ratio and trend analysis in the examination of the

A. Statement of Changes in Stockholders’ Equity and Retained Earnings.

 

B. Income Statement.

 

C. Balance Sheet.

 

D. Statement of Cash Flows.

 

74. The auditor notices significant fluctuations in key elements of the company’s financial statements. If management is unable to provide an acceptable explanation, the auditor should

A. Consider the matter a scope limitation.

 

B. Perform additional audit procedures to investigate the matter further.

 

C. Intensify the examination with the expectation of detecting management fraud.

 

D. Withdraw from the engagement.

 

75. Which of the following tends to be most predictable for purposes of analytical procedures applied as substantive procedures?

A. Relationships involving balance sheet accounts.

 

B. Transactions subject to management discretion.

 

C. Relationships involving income statement accounts.

 

D. Data subject to audit testing in the prior year.

 

76. Analytical procedures enable the auditor to predict the balance or quantity of an item under audit. Information to develop this estimate can be obtained from all of the following except:

A. Tracing transactions through the system to determine whether procedures are being applied as prescribed.

 

B. Comparison of financial data with data for comparable prior periods, anticipated results (e.g., budgets and forecasts) and similar data for the industry in which the entity operates.

 

C. Study of the relationships of elements of financial data that would be expected to conform to a predictable pattern based upon the entity’s experience.

 

D. Study of the relationships of financial data with relevant nonfinancial data.

 

77. An auditor’s analytical procedures performed during the overall review stage indicated that the entity’s accounts receivable balance had doubled since the end of the prior year. However, the allowance for doubtful accounts as a percentage of accounts receivable remained about the same. Which of the following explanations most likely would satisfy the auditor?

A. The entity liberalized its credit standards in the current year and sold much more merchandise to customers with poor credit ratings.

 

B. Twice as many accounts receivable were written off in the prior year than in the current year.

 

C. A greater percentage of accounts receivable were currently listed in the “more than 90 days overdue” category than in the prior year.

 

D. The entity opened a second retail outlet in the current year and its credit sales approximately equaled the older, established outlet.

 

78. Which of the following would be least likely to be comparable between similar corporations in the same industry or line of business?

A. Earnings per share.

 

B. Return on total assets before interest and taxes.

 

C. Accounts receivable turnover.

 

D. Operating cycle.

 

79. Which of the following ratios would an engagement partner most likely calculate when reviewing the balance sheet in the overall review stage of an audit?

A. Quick assets divided by accounts payable.

 

B. Accounts receivable divided by inventory.

 

C. Interest payable divided by interest receivable.

 

D. Total debt divided by total assets.

 

 

Short Answer Questions

80. Explain the occurrence and completeness assertions. How does failure to meet each assertion affect the financial statements?

 

 

 

 

81. Name two management assertions pertaining to the inventory account balance and explain why they are considered in an audit.

 

 

 

 

82. For an auditor, how are management assertions useful?

 

 

 

 

83. The text discusses three main purposes for performing audit procedures. List and describe these three main categories of audit procedures and describe their purpose.

 

 

 

 

84. Why is appropriateness important for audit evidence? What qualities must evidence have to be considered appropriate?

 

 

 

 

85. Several factors may influence the reliability of evidence. Identify and describe two of these factors.

 

 

 

 

86. Sarah is auditing the sales of a new client. In one procedure Sarah performs, she begins with the original sales documents and then searches the accounting records to find the corresponding entry. What test is Sarah performing and what management assertion is she testing?

 

 

 

 

87. Auditors obtain evidence about the inventory account through, among other procedures, observing the counting of inventory. What are some limitations “observation” has as an audit procedure?

 

 

 

 

88. The audit testing hierarchy is considered to be more effective and more efficient. Why?

 

 

 

 

89. According to the text, what are the two functions of working papers?

 

 

 

 

90. Who is responsible for the financial statements? What does the term “assertions” mean? Identify the assertion categories and the specific assertions for each category.

 

 

 

 

91. Discuss the reliability of the types of audit evidence and identify the level of reliability for each type of evidence.

 

 

 

 

92. For each of the following categories of analytical procedures, indicate (a) whether an auditor is required to use the procedure and (b) the purpose(s) of the procedure.
Preliminary analytical procedures (risk assessment procedures)
Substantive analytical procedures
Final analytical procedures

 

 

 

 

93. When using analytical procedures, the auditor first needs to develop an expectation with which to compare recorded results. What is meant by “precision of the expectation,” and what factors affect the precision of analytical procedures?

 

 

 

 

94. In deciding to implement analytical procedures, what are some factors the auditor will consider in determining a tolerable difference between the expectation and the recorded amount?

 

 

 

 

95. Stan is auditing First Financial Services and would like to use financial ratios to test the ability of First Financial Services to meet its current obligations. Identify two ratios that would help Stan in this task. Indicate how each ratio is calculated and what a high ratio would signify to Stan.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 05 Evidence and Documentation Answer Key

True / False Questions

1. Audit evidence includes only written information used by the auditor in arriving at an opinion about the fairness of financial statements.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Understand the relationship between audit evidence and the auditor’s report.
Topic: Audit Evidence and the Auditor’s Report
 

 

2. The auditor gathers audit evidence to test management’s assertions.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Understand the relationship between audit evidence and the auditor’s report.
Topic: Audit Evidence and the Auditor’s Report
 

 

3. Management assertions fall into four main categories.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

4. The classification assertion refers to transactions and events being recorded in the correct accounting period.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

5. The completeness assertion refers to ensuring that transactions and events that should have been recorded actually have been recorded.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

6. The cutoff assertion relates to whether transactions and events have been recorded in the correct accounting period.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

7. Audit procedures are designed to test management assertions.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Risk Analysis
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

8. The relevance of audit evidence or specific audit procedures depends on the assertion being tested.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Learn the basic concepts of audit evidence.
Topic: The Concepts of Audit Evidence
 

 

9. The auditor must use his or her professional judgment to determine the amount of audit evidence to be gathered.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Learn the basic concepts of audit evidence.
Topic: The Concepts of Audit Evidence
 

 

10. The sufficiency of evidence refers to the quality of audit evidence.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Learn the basic concepts of audit evidence.
Topic: The Concepts of Audit Evidence
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

11. A confirmation is used to

A. Verify the inventory count is correct.

 

B. Verify that a control is being observed.

 

C. Verify a representation from a third party.

 

D. Verify that a specific trend is correct.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

12. Which of the following elements ultimately determines the amount of audit work that is necessary in the circumstances to afford a reasonable basis for an opinion?

A. Auditor judgment.

 

B. Materiality.

 

C. Relative risk.

 

D. Reasonable assurance.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Understand the relationship between audit evidence and the auditor’s report.
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Evidence and the Auditor’s Report
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

13. Which of the following is an essential factor in evaluating the sufficiency of evidence? The evidence must

A. Be well documented and cross-referenced in the audit documents.

 

B. Be based on sources that are considered reliable.

 

C. Bear a direct relationship to the audit assertion.

 

D. Be persuasive enough to enable the auditor to form an opinion.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Understand the relationship between audit evidence and the auditor’s report.
Learning Objective: 05-03 Learn the basic concepts of audit evidence.
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Audit Evidence and the Auditor’s Report
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
Topic: The Concepts of Audit Evidence
 

 

14. Which set of assertions is tested when, during completion of the audit, the audit partner conducts a final review of the format of the entity’s balance sheet?

A. Assertions about classes of transactions and events.

 

B. Assertions about account balances at the period end.

 

C. Assertions about presentation and disclosure.

 

D. None of these.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Reporting
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

15. In testing plant and equipment balances, an auditor may physically inspect new additions listed on the summary of plant and equipment transactions for the year. This procedure is designed to obtain evidence concerning management’s assertions about classes of transactions and events, and specifically, which assertion?

A. Occurrence.

 

B. Cutoff.

 

C. Authorization.

 

D. Classification.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

16. Which assertions may be tested for the “account balances” category of management assertions?

A. Existence, accuracy, rights and obligations, completeness.

 

B. Existence, rights and obligations, completeness, valuation and allocation.

 

C. Occurrence, rights and obligations, completeness, valuation and allocation.

 

D. Occurrence, accuracy, rights and obligations, completeness.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Legal
AICPA: FN Risk Analysis
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

17. Which assertions may be tested for the “transactions and events” category of management assertions?

A. Existence, completeness, rights and obligations, accuracy, cutoff and classification.

 

B. Occurrence, completeness, rights and obligations, accuracy, cutoff and classification.

 

C. Occurrence, completeness, authorization, accuracy, cutoff and classification.

 

D. Existence, rights and obligations, accuracy, authorization, and completeness.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Legal
AICPA: FN Risk Analysis
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

18. Which assertions may be tested for the “presentation and disclosure” category of management assertions?

A. Existence, rights and obligations, cutoff and classification, completeness, accuracy and valuation.

 

B. Occurrence, rights and obligations, existence, accuracy and valuation, cutoff and classification.

 

C. Occurrence, completeness, classification and understandability, cutoff and classification.

 

D. Occurrence, rights and obligations, completeness, classification and understandability, accuracy and valuation.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Legal
AICPA: FN Risk Analysis
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

19. Tracing is used primarily to test which of the following assertions about classes of transactions?

A. Occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Cutoff.

 

D. Classification.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

20. Vouching is used primarily to test which of the following assertions about classes of transaction?

A. Occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Authorization.

 

D. Classification.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

21. In designing written audit programs, an auditor should plan specific audit procedures to test

A. Timing of audit procedures.

 

B. Cost-benefit of gathering evidence.

 

C. Selected audit techniques.

 

D. Management assertions.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Risk Analysis
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

22. Footing is an example of

A. Recalculation.

 

B. Confirmation.

 

C. Inquiries.

 

D. Analytical procedures.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

23. In determining whether transactions have been recorded, the direction of the audit testing should start from the

A. General ledger balances.

 

B. Adjusted trial balance.

 

C. Original source documents.

 

D. General journal entries.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

24. To test for unsupported entries in the ledger, the direction of audit testing should start from the

A. Ledger entries.

 

B. Journal entries.

 

C. Externally generated documents.

 

D. Original source documents.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

25. Which of the following presumptions does not relate to the appropriateness of audit evidence?

A. The more effective the internal control system, the more assurance it provides about the accounting data and financial statements.

 

B. An auditor’s opinion, to be economically useful, is formed within a reasonable time and based on evidence obtained at a reasonable cost.

 

C. Evidence obtained from independent sources outside the entity is more reliable than evidence secured solely within the entity.

 

D. The independent auditor’s direct personal knowledge, obtained through observation and inspection, is more persuasive than information obtained indirectly.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
 

 

26. Of the following, which is the least persuasive type of audit evidence?

A. Documents mailed by outsiders to the auditor.

 

B. Correspondence between the auditor and third party vendors.

 

C. Copies of company sales invoices inspected by the auditor.

 

D. Computations made by the auditor.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
 

 

27. The third general auditing standard requires that due professional care be exercised in the performance of the examination and the preparation of the report. Due professional care deals with what is done by the independent auditor and how well it is done. For example, due care in the matter of audit documents requires that audit documents’

A. Format be neat and orderly and include both a permanent file and a general file.

 

B. Content be sufficient to provide support for the auditor’s report, including the auditor’s representation as to compliance with auditing standards.

 

C. Ownership is determined by the legal statutes of the state where the auditor practices.

 

D. Preparation is the responsibility of assistants whose work is reviewed by seniors, managers, and partners.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AICPA: BB Legal
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-07 Understand the functions of audit documentation.
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

28. Which of the following show the detailed general ledger accounts that make up a financial statement category on the auditor’s working trial balance?

A. Account analyses.

 

B. Supporting schedules.

 

C. Control accounts.

 

D. Lead schedules.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-07 Understand the functions of audit documentation.
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

29. The permanent (continuing) file of an auditor’s working papers most likely would include copies of the

A. Bank statements.

 

B. Debt agreements.

 

C. Lead schedules.

 

D. Attorney’s letters.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-07 Understand the functions of audit documentation.
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

30. An example of audit evidence with a medium level of reliability is

A. Scanning.

 

B. Recalculation.

 

C. Observation.

 

D. All of these.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

31. Audit documentation prepared on audits of public entities is the property of the

A. Shareholders.

 

B. Auditor.

 

C. Management of the entity being audited.

 

D. SEC.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AICPA: BB Legal
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

32. All of the following are typically in the current file except:

A. Adjusting journal entries.

 

B. Copies of the audit report.

 

C. Chart of accounts.

 

D. Lead schedules.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-07 Understand the functions of audit documentation.
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

33. You are auditing a store that sells merchandise. Some of the store merchandise is held on consignment. Which account balance assertion for inventory should you be most concerned about verifying?

A. Existence or occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Rights and obligations.

 

D. Valuation or allocation.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

34. You are auditing a manufacturing company that has a large production facility. Some of the production equipment is held through lease agreements. Which of the following is the account balance assertion you would be most concerned about?

A. Existence or occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Rights and obligations.

 

D. Accuracy.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

35. Which of the following procedures would an auditor most likely perform to verify management’s assertion of completeness?

A. Compare a sample of shipping documents to related sales invoices.

 

B. Observe the entity’s distribution of payroll checks.

 

C. Confirm a sample of recorded receivables by direct communication with the debtors.

 

D. Review standard bank confirmations for indications of kiting.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

36. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of audit procedures?

A. To detect all errors or fraudulent activities.

 

B. To comply with generally accepted accounting principles.

 

C. To gather corroborative evidence about management’s assertions.

 

D. To verify the accuracy of the balance sheet account balances.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

37. Procedures specifically outlined in an audit program are designed primarily to

A. Assess risk for planning purposes.

 

B. Detect all errors or fraudulent activities.

 

C. Test internal control systems.

 

D. Gather evidence about management’s assertions.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Leveraging Technology
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

38. Which statement concerning audit evidence is not valid?

A. The auditor is seldom convinced beyond all doubt with respect to all aspects of the financial statements being audited.

 

B. The auditor performs tests to collect convincing evidence that the financial statements are not misstated.

 

C. The auditor weighs the cost of obtaining evidence with its usefulness.

 

D. The auditor considers the amount of risk present in deciding the nature and extent of evidence to be collected.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Learn the basic concepts of audit evidence.
Topic: The Concepts of Audit Evidence
 

 

39. Each of the following might, by itself, form a valid basis for an auditor to reduce substantive testing except for the:

A. Difficulty and expense involved in testing a particular item.

 

B. Assessment of control risk at a low level.

 

C. Low inherent risk involved.

 

D. Relationship between the cost of obtaining evidence and its usefulness.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Risk Analysis
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Learn the basic concepts of audit evidence.
Topic: The Concepts of Audit Evidence
 

 

40. Of the following, the most reliable type of evidence typically is:

A. Confirmation.

 

B. Inspection of records and documents.

 

C. Reperformance.

 

D. Observation.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
 

 

41. Which of the following presumptions is correct about the reliability of audit evidence?

A. Information obtained indirectly from outside sources is the most reliable audit evidence.

 

B. To be reliable, audit evidence should be convincing rather than persuasive.

 

C. Reliability of audit evidence refers to the amount of corroborative evidence obtained.

 

D. An effective internal control system provides more reliable audit evidence.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Learn the basic concepts of audit evidence.
Topic: The Concepts of Audit Evidence
 

 

42. Which of the following types of documentary evidence should the auditor consider to be the most reliable?

A. A sales invoice issued by the entity and supported by a delivery receipt from an outside trucker.

 

B. Confirmation of an account payable balance mailed by and returned directly to the auditor.

 

C. A check issued by the company and bearing the payee’s endorsement that is included with the bank statement mailed directly to the auditor.

 

D. A working paper prepared by the entity’s controller and reviewed by the entity’s treasurer.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
 

 

43. Which of the following is the least persuasive documentation in support of an auditor’s opinion?

A. Schedules of details of physical inventory counts conducted by the entity.

 

B. Notation of auditor’s inferences drawn from ratios and trends.

 

C. Notation of appraisers’ conclusions documented in the auditor’s working papers.

 

D. Lists of negative confirmation requests for which no response was received by the auditor.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
 

 

44. Which of the following statements is generally correct about the appropriateness of audit evidence?

A. The more effective the internal control, the more assurance it provides about the reliability of the accounting data and financial statements.

 

B. Appropriateness of audit evidence refers to the amount of corroborative evidence obtained.

 

C. Information obtained indirectly from independent outside sources is more persuasive than the auditor’s direct personal knowledge obtained through observation and inspection.

 

D. Appropriateness of audit evidence refers only to audit evidence obtained from outside the entity.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Learn the basic concepts of audit evidence.
Topic: The Concepts of Audit Evidence
 

 

45. Which of the following types of audit evidence is the most persuasive?

A. Prenumbered internal purchase order forms.

 

B. Auditee worksheets supporting cost allocations.

 

C. Bank statements obtained from the auditee.

 

D. Auditee personnel responses to auditor inquiries.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
 

 

46. Following are several statements regarding accounting records or audit documentation. Which of the statements is correct?

A. Accounting records belong to the auditee.

 

B. Documentation of an auditor’s understanding of the entity’s internal control system is not necessary.

 

C. Audit documents may be regarded as a substitute for the company’s accounting records.

 

D. The independent auditor may discard audit documents after two years.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Legal
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-07 Understand the functions of audit documentation.
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

47. Audit documents record the results of the auditor’s evidence-gathering procedures. When preparing audit documents, the auditor should remember that

A. Audit documents should be kept on the client’s premises so that the client can have access to them for reference purposes.

 

B. Audit documents should be the primary support for the financial statements being examined.

 

C. Audit documents should be considered as a substitute for the company’s accounting records.

 

D. Audit documents should be designed to facilitate the review and supervision of work done by auditors assigned to the engagement.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Legal
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-07 Understand the functions of audit documentation.
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

48. Audit documents that record the procedures used by the auditor to gather evidence should be

A. Considered the primary support for the financial statements being examined.

 

B. Viewed as the connecting link between the accounting records and the financial statements.

 

C. Designed in an orderly fashion to facilitate the review of audit work by the senior, manager, and partner on the engagement.

 

D. Retained until the audited entity ceases to be a client.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Legal
AICPA: FN Reporting
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-07 Understand the functions of audit documentation.
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

49. In creating lead schedules for an audit engagement, what financial information is needed to begin?

A. Interim financial information, such as third quarter sales, net income, and inventory and receivables balances.

 

B. Specialized journal information, such as the invoice and purchase order numbers of the last few sales and purchases of the year.

 

C. General ledger information, such as account numbers, prior-year account balances, and current year unadjusted information.

 

D. Adjusting entry information, such as deferrals and accruals and reclassification journal entries.

 

AACSB: Technology
AICPA: BB Leveraging Technology
AICPA: FN Leveraging Technology
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Evaluate
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-07 Understand the functions of audit documentation.
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

50. Audit documentation

A. Must be in electronic form.

 

B. Must be in paper form only.

 

C. Is not required, but is strongly recommended.

 

D. May be in paper, electronic, or some other form.

 

AACSB: Technology
AICPA: BB Leveraging Technology
AICPA: FN Leveraging Technology
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-07 Understand the functions of audit documentation.
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

51. Based on conversations with the owner-manager of an audit client, the auditor ascertained that the company’s primary motivation is to avoid paying income taxes. Based on this motivation, which account balance assertion for ending inventory will the auditor be most concerned about verifying?

A. Existence or occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Rights and obligations.

 

D. Observation.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

52. Your audit client is under intense pressure to meet an earnings target. Which transaction assertion for transactions within the purchasing process are you most concerned with?

A. Existence or occurrence.

 

B. Completeness.

 

C. Rights and obligations.

 

D. Presentation and disclosure.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

53. You are concerned with unrecorded transactions in the purchasing cycle. Which audit procedure are you most likely to use when auditing purchases?

A. Vouching transactions in accounting records to vendor invoices.

 

B. Tracing vendor invoices to accounting records.

 

C. Recalculation of vendor invoice amounts.

 

D. Confirmation of customer accounts.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

54. The following statements were made in a discussion of audit evidence between two CPAs. Which statement is not valid concerning audit evidence?

A. “I am seldom convinced beyond all doubt with respect to all aspects of the statements being examined.”

 

B. “I would not undertake that procedure because at best the results would only be persuasive and I’m looking for convincing evidence.”

 

C. “I evaluate the degree of risk involved in deciding the kind of evidence I will gather.”

 

D. “I evaluate the usefulness of the evidence I can obtain against the cost of obtaining it.”

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Learn the basic concepts of audit evidence.
Topic: The Concepts of Audit Evidence
 

 

55. Which of the following statements concerning audit evidence is correct?

A. Appropriate evidence supporting management’s assertions should be convincing rather than persuasive.

 

B. Effective internal controls contribute little to the reliability of the evidence created within the entity.

 

C. The cost of obtaining evidence is not an important consideration to an auditor in deciding what evidence should be obtained.

 

D. A company’s accounting data cannot be considered sufficient audit evidence to support the financial statements.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
 

 

56. The permanent audit file usually includes

A. Working trial balance.

 

B. Organizational chart.

 

C. Audit plan.

 

D. Audit programs.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

57. The current audit file usually includes

A. Working trial balance.

 

B. Organizational chart.

 

C. Accounting manual.

 

D. Copies of important contracts.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

58. All audit documentation should have a heading, which includes

A. Name of the company under audit.

 

B. Title of the working paper.

 

C. Company’s year-end date.

 

D. All of these.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

59. The audit working papers belong to

A. The company under audit.

 

B. The government.

 

C. The audit firm.

 

D. They are public record documents.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-08 Develop an understanding of the content; types; organization; and ownership of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

60. Which of the following are ordinarily designed to detect possible material monetary errors in the financial statements?

A. Tests of controls.

 

B. Analytical procedures.

 

C. Computer controls.

 

D. Post-audit review of audit documents.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
 

 

61. An auditor’s decision either to apply analytical procedures as substantive procedures or to perform tests of transactions and account balances usually is determined by

A. Availability of data aggregated at a high level.

 

B. Relative effectiveness and efficiency of the tests.

 

C. Timing of tests performed after the balance sheet date.

 

D. Auditor’s familiarity with industry trends.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
 

 

62. A company sells a particular product only in the last month of its fiscal year. The company uses commission agents for such sales and pays them 6% of their net sales 30 days after the sales are made. The agents’ sales were $10 million. Experience indicates that 10% of the sales are usually not collected and 2% are returned in the first month of the new year. The auditor would expect the year-end balance in the accrued commissions payable account to be

A. $528,000.

 

B. $540,000.

 

C. $588,000.

 

D. $600,000.

$10,000,000 × 98% = $9,800,000 Net Sales × 6% commission percentage = $588,000 estimated accrued commissions payable.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
 

 

63. Which of the following nonfinancial information would an auditor most likely consider in performing analytical procedures during the planning phase of an audit?

A. Turnover of personnel in the accounting department.

 

B. Objectivity of audit committee members.

 

C. Square footage of selling space.

 

D. Management’s plans to repurchase stock.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
 

 

64. A not-for-profit organization published a monthly magazine that had 15,000 subscribers on January 1, 2013. The number of subscribers increased steadily throughout the year and at December 31, 2013, there were 16,200 subscribers. The annual magazine subscription cost was $10 on January 1, 2013 and was increased to $12 for new members on April 1, 2013. Subscriptions are paid in full at the beginning of the member term. An auditor should expect that the revenue from subscriptions for the year ended December 31, 2013, would be approximately

A. $179,400.

 

B. $171,600.

 

C. $164,400.

 

D. $163,800.

 

15100 10 151000
100 10 1000
100 10 1000
100 12 1200
100 12 1200
100 12 1200
100 12 1200
100 12 1200
100 12 1200
100 12 1200
100 12 1200
100 12 1200
    163800

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
 

 

65. Analytical procedures performed in the overall review stage of an audit suggest that several accounts have unexpected relationships. The results of these procedures most likely would indicate that

A. Fraud exists within the relevant accounts.

 

B. Internal control activities are not operating effectively.

 

C. Additional tests of details are required.

 

D. The communication with the audit committee should be revised.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
 

 

66. Which of the following is not a typical analytical procedure?

A. Study of relationships of the financial information with relevant nonfinancial information.

 

B. Comparison of the financial information with similar information regarding the industry in which the entity operates.

 

C. Comparison of recorded amounts of major disbursements with appropriate invoices.

 

D. Comparison of the financial information with budgeted amounts.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

67. Analytical procedures may be classified as being primarily which of the following?

A. Tests of controls.

 

B. Substantive procedures.

 

C. Tests of ratios.

 

D. Detailed tests of balances.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

68. An abnormal fluctuation in gross profit that might suggest the need for extended audit procedures for sales and inventories would most likely be identified in the planning phase of the audit by the use of

A. Tests of transactions and balances.

 

B. A preliminary review of internal controls.

 

C. Specialized audit programs.

 

D. Analytical procedures.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

69. An example of an analytical procedure is the comparison of

A. Financial information with similar information regarding the industry in which the entity operates.

 

B. Recorded amounts of major disbursements with appropriate invoices.

 

C. Results of a statistical sample with the expected characteristics of the actual population.

 

D. EDP generated data with similar data generated by a manual accounting system.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

70. Analytical procedures used in planning an audit should focus on identifying

A. Material weaknesses in internal control.

 

B. The predictability of financial data from individual transactions.

 

C. The various assertions that are embodied in the financial statements.

 

D. Areas that may represent specific risks relevant to the audit.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

71. Analytical procedures are

A. Never required.

 

B. Required for planning, substantive testing, and overall review of the financial statements.

 

C. Required for planning and overall review of the financial statements.

 

D. Required during planning only.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Legal
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

72. As a result of analytical procedures conducted during the planning phase, the independent auditor determines that the gross profit percentage has declined from 30% in the preceding year to 20% in the current year. The auditor should

A. Express an opinion that is qualified due to the inability of the company to continue as a going concern.

 

B. Evaluate management’s performance in causing this decline.

 

C. Require footnote disclosure.

 

D. Consider the possibility of an error in the financial statements.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

73. The auditor generally gives most emphasis to ratio and trend analysis in the examination of the

A. Statement of Changes in Stockholders’ Equity and Retained Earnings.

 

B. Income Statement.

 

C. Balance Sheet.

 

D. Statement of Cash Flows.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Evaluate
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

74. The auditor notices significant fluctuations in key elements of the company’s financial statements. If management is unable to provide an acceptable explanation, the auditor should

A. Consider the matter a scope limitation.

 

B. Perform additional audit procedures to investigate the matter further.

 

C. Intensify the examination with the expectation of detecting management fraud.

 

D. Withdraw from the engagement.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

75. Which of the following tends to be most predictable for purposes of analytical procedures applied as substantive procedures?

A. Relationships involving balance sheet accounts.

 

B. Transactions subject to management discretion.

 

C. Relationships involving income statement accounts.

 

D. Data subject to audit testing in the prior year.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

76. Analytical procedures enable the auditor to predict the balance or quantity of an item under audit. Information to develop this estimate can be obtained from all of the following except:

A. Tracing transactions through the system to determine whether procedures are being applied as prescribed.

 

B. Comparison of financial data with data for comparable prior periods, anticipated results (e.g., budgets and forecasts) and similar data for the industry in which the entity operates.

 

C. Study of the relationships of elements of financial data that would be expected to conform to a predictable pattern based upon the entity’s experience.

 

D. Study of the relationships of financial data with relevant nonfinancial data.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

77. An auditor’s analytical procedures performed during the overall review stage indicated that the entity’s accounts receivable balance had doubled since the end of the prior year. However, the allowance for doubtful accounts as a percentage of accounts receivable remained about the same. Which of the following explanations most likely would satisfy the auditor?

A. The entity liberalized its credit standards in the current year and sold much more merchandise to customers with poor credit ratings.

 

B. Twice as many accounts receivable were written off in the prior year than in the current year.

 

C. A greater percentage of accounts receivable were currently listed in the “more than 90 days overdue” category than in the prior year.

 

D. The entity opened a second retail outlet in the current year and its credit sales approximately equaled the older, established outlet.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

78. Which of the following would be least likely to be comparable between similar corporations in the same industry or line of business?

A. Earnings per share.

 

B. Return on total assets before interest and taxes.

 

C. Accounts receivable turnover.

 

D. Operating cycle.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

79. Which of the following ratios would an engagement partner most likely calculate when reviewing the balance sheet in the overall review stage of an audit?

A. Quick assets divided by accounts payable.

 

B. Accounts receivable divided by inventory.

 

C. Interest payable divided by interest receivable.

 

D. Total debt divided by total assets.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

Short Answer Questions

80. Explain the occurrence and completeness assertions. How does failure to meet each assertion affect the financial statements?

The occurrence assertion relates to whether all recorded transactions and events have occurred and pertain to the entity. The completeness assertion relates to whether all transactions and events that occurred during the period have been recorded. Failure to meet the completeness assertion results in an understatement in the related account, while invalid recorded amounts result in an overstatement in the related account.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Reporting
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

81. Name two management assertions pertaining to the inventory account balance and explain why they are considered in an audit.

Answers should include two of the following:

Existence: A company has an incentive to overstate inventory to improve the appearance of its balance sheet. Auditors can perform procedures, such as physical examination, to test that the company’s stated liabilities actually exist.
Rights: Auditors also need to ensure that the company has rights to its stated inventory. For instance, a company may be storing customer goods or holding goods on consignment; in these cases, the company does not actually hold the rights to the goods.
Valuation: A company has an incentive to overvalue its inventory. Again, this improves the appearance of the balance sheet. Auditors should understand the possibility that some merchandise may be obsolete, may not be valued at the market cost, or may include improperly allocated costs.
Completeness: A company’s inventory may not be properly stated due to inappropriate exclusion of inventory items. The inventory may not include everything that should have been recorded. This event may occur with faulty internal controls, so auditors should be aware of this possibility.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

82. For an auditor, how are management assertions useful?

The assertions provide a framework within which the auditor plans the audit, designs audit procedures, obtains relevant evidence, and evaluates the appropriateness and sufficiency of the evidence. The management assertions help the auditor focus his or her attention on all the various aspects of transactions, account balances, and required disclosures that ought to be considered to ascertain fair presentation of financial statements to users.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

83. The text discusses three main purposes for performing audit procedures. List and describe these three main categories of audit procedures and describe their purpose.

Risk assessment procedures: Risk assessment procedures are performed to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including its internal control, in order to assess the risks of material misstatement at the financial statement and assertion levels.
Tests of controls: Tests of controls allow the auditor to test the operating effectiveness of controls in preventing or, detecting and correcting, material misstatements at the assertion level.
Substantive procedures: Substantive procedures are performed to detect material misstatements at the assertion level.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
 

 

84. Why is appropriateness important for audit evidence? What qualities must evidence have to be considered appropriate?

Appropriateness is a measure of the quality of audit evidence. Evidence is considered appropriate when it provides information that is both relevant and reliable. Relevant evidence should be related to the assertion being tested. Reliable evidence can be relied upon to signal the true state of an assertion.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
 

 

85. Several factors may influence the reliability of evidence. Identify and describe two of these factors.

Answer should include two of the following:

Evidence obtained directly by the auditor from an independent source outside the entity is usually viewed as more reliable than evidence obtained solely from within the entity.
When the auditor assesses the entity’s internal control as effective, evidence generated by that accounting system is viewed as reliable.
Evidence obtained directly by the auditor is generally considered to be more reliable than evidence obtained indirectly or by inference.
Audit evidence in documentary form is considered more reliable than verbal evidence.
Audit evidence provided by original documents is considered more reliable than copies.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Measurement
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
 

 

86. Sarah is auditing the sales of a new client. In one procedure Sarah performs, she begins with the original sales documents and then searches the accounting records to find the corresponding entry. What test is Sarah performing and what management assertion is she testing?

Sarah is tracing, which refers to first selecting an accounting transaction (a source document) and then following it into the journal or ledger. The management assertion being tested is completeness. Testing in this direction ensures that transactions that occurred are recorded in the accounting records.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

87. Auditors obtain evidence about the inventory account through, among other procedures, observing the counting of inventory. What are some limitations “observation” has as an audit procedure?

Observation is limited to the point in time at which the observation takes place. In addition, entity personnel may act differently when the auditor is not observing them.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-04 Know the audit procedures used for obtaining audit evidence.
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Audit Procedures for Obtaining Audit Evidence
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
 

 

88. The audit testing hierarchy is considered to be more effective and more efficient. Why?

Effectiveness: The auditor’s understanding and testing of controls will enhance the auditor’s ability to hone in on areas where misstatements are more likely to be found.
Efficiency: Generally, tests of controls and substantive analytical procedures are less costly to perform than are tests of details.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-06 Understand the audit testing hierarchy.
Topic: The Audit Testing Hierarchy
 

 

89. According to the text, what are the two functions of working papers?

Working papers provide support for the auditor’s report and aid in the conduct and supervision of the audit. The working papers are the focal point for reviewing the work of subordinates and quality control reviewers. As support for the auditor’s report, the working papers also document that the scope of the audit was adequate. In particular, working papers document the auditor’s compliance with the standards of fieldwork.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Reporting
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-07 Understand the functions of audit documentation.
Topic: Audit Documentation
 

 

90. Who is responsible for the financial statements? What does the term “assertions” mean? Identify the assertion categories and the specific assertions for each category.

Management is responsible for the fair presentation of its financial statements.
Assertions are expressed or implied representations by management that are reflected in the financial statement components.
Management assertions fall into the following categories:

1. Assertions about classes of transactions and events for the period under audit. Specific assertions for this category include: (1) occurrence, (2) completeness, (3) authorization, (4) accuracy, (5) cutoff, and (6) classification.
2. Assertions about account balances at the period end. Specific assertions for this category include: (1) existence, (2) rights and obligations, (3) completeness, and (4) valuation and allocation.
3. Assertions about presentation and disclosure. Specific assertions for this category include: (1) occurrence and rights and obligations, (2) completeness, (3) classification and understandability, and (4) accuracy and valuation.

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Reporting
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Know management assertions about classes of transactions; account balances; and presentation and disclosure.
Topic: Management Assertions
 

 

91. Discuss the reliability of the types of audit evidence and identify the level of reliability for each type of evidence.

Inspection of the tangible assets, reperformance, and recalculation are generally considered of high reliability because the auditor has direct knowledge about them.
Inspection of records and documents, scanning, confirmation, and analytical procedures are generally considered to be of medium reliability. The reliability of inspection of records and documents depends primarily on whether a document is internal or external, and the reliability of confirmation is affected by (1) the form of the confirmation, (2) prior experience with the entity, (3) the nature of the information being confirmed and (4) the intended respondent. The reliability of analytical procedures may be affected by the availability and reliability of the data.
Observation and inquiry (other than confirmation) are generally low-reliability types of evidence because both require further corroboration by the auditor.
The reliabilities of the types of evidence are summarized below:

High Reliability

1. Inspection of tangible assets
2. Reperformance
3. Recalculation

Medium Reliability

1. Inspection of records and documents
2. Scanning
3. Confirmation
4. Analytical procedures

Low Reliability

1. Observation
2. Inquiry

 

AACSB: Communication
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Reporting
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Understand the reliability of the types of evidence.
Topic: Reliability of the Types of Evidence
 

 

92. For each of the following categories of analytical procedures, indicate (a) whether an auditor is required to use the procedure and (b) the purpose(s) of the procedure.
Preliminary analytical procedures (risk assessment procedures)
Substantive analytical procedures
Final analytical procedures

The auditor is required to use preliminary analytical procedures to better understand the business and to help in planning the nature, timing, and extent of audit procedures.
Substantive analytical procedures are not required but are commonly used to obtain evidential matter about particular assertions related to account balances or classes of transactions.
Final analytical procedures are required as an overall review of the financial information in the final review stage of the audit.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
 

 

93. When using analytical procedures, the auditor first needs to develop an expectation with which to compare recorded results. What is meant by “precision of the expectation,” and what factors affect the precision of analytical procedures?

The quality of an expectation is referred to as the precision of the expectation. Precision is a measure of the potential effectiveness of an analytical procedure; it represents the degree of reliance that can be placed on the procedure. Precision is affected by disaggregation, the plausibility and predictability of the relationship being studied, data reliability, and the type of analytical procedure used to form an expectation.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
 

 

94. In deciding to implement analytical procedures, what are some factors the auditor will consider in determining a tolerable difference between the expectation and the recorded amount?

The size of the tolerable difference depends on the significance of the account, the desired degree of reliance on the substantive analytical procedure, the level of disaggregation in the amount being tested, and the precision of the expectation.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Critical Thinking
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-09 Learn the purposes and types of analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 1: Analytical Procedures
 

 

95. Stan is auditing First Financial Services and would like to use financial ratios to test the ability of First Financial Services to meet its current obligations. Identify two ratios that would help Stan in this task. Indicate how each ratio is calculated and what a high ratio would signify to Stan.

Answer should include two of the following:

The current ratio is calculated as current assets divided by current liabilities. A high ratio indicates an entity’s ability to pay current obligations.
The quick ratio is calculated as liquid assets divided by current liabilities. It does not include inventory and prepaid items. A ratio greater than 1 generally indicates that the entity’s liquid assets are sufficient to meet the cash requirements for paying current liabilities.
The operating cash flow ratio is calculated as cash flow from operations divided by current liabilities. The operating cash flow ratio provides a longer-term measure of the entity’s ability to meet its current liabilities and a high ratio indicates a better ability to meet current liabilities with operating cash flow.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AICPA: BB Industry
AICPA: FN Decision Making
Blooms: Analyze
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-10 Be familiar with financial ratios that are useful as analytical procedures.
Topic: Advanced Module 2: Selected Financial Ratios Useful as Analytical Procedures
 

 

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