Business Law Jane Mallor 16e - Test Bank

Business Law Jane Mallor 16e - Test Bank   Instant Download - Complete Test Bank With Answers     Sample Questions Are Posted Below   Chapter 05 Criminal Law and Procedure   True / False Questions 1. Special deterrence results when punishment of a wrongdoer deters other persons from committing similar offenses. True    False   2. …

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Business Law Jane Mallor 16e – Test Bank

 

Instant Download – Complete Test Bank With Answers

 

 

Sample Questions Are Posted Below

 

Chapter 05

Criminal Law and Procedure

 

True / False Questions

1. Special deterrence results when punishment of a wrongdoer deters other persons from committing similar offenses.

True    False

 

2. When Congress created the U.S. Sentencing Commission and charged it with creating Sentencing Guidelines, Congress sought (among other things) to decrease the discretion of judges in making sentencing decisions.

True    False

 

3. When a judge’s sentencing decision is challenged on appeal, the governing standard will be one of reasonableness.

True    False

 

4. The U.S. Constitution allows ex post facto criminal laws.

True    False

 

5. Crimes are private wrongs.

True    False

 

6. Obscene noncommercial expressions receive no First Amendment protection.

True    False

 

7. The Eighth Amendment forbids cruel and unusual punishments.

True    False

 

8. The Equal Protection Clause prevents states and the federal government from enacting criminal laws that discriminate against different classes of individuals.

True    False

 

9. Voluntary intoxication usually serves as a complete defense to criminal liability.

True    False

 

10. In the United States a defendant in a criminal trial is presumed innocent.

True    False

 

11. At a preliminary hearing in a felony case, the government must prove its case by the “beyond a reasonable doubt” standard.

True    False

 

12. The language of the Bill of Rights only refers to actions of the federal government so the protections of the Bill of Rights do not apply to state government action.

True    False

 

13. Owners of commercial property enjoy greater privacy expectations in their property for Fourth Amendment purposes than do owners of residential property.

True    False

 

14. Officers may conduct a warrantless search of an individual at the time of an arrest.

True    False

 

15. During a ‘Terry Stop’ officers may not conduct a pat down search of an individual without a warrant.

True    False

 

16. Under the U.S.A. PATRIOT Act, the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA) Court may issue warrants of the “sneak and peek” variety.

True    False

 

17. A defendant’s constitutional right to be free from compelled testimonial self-incrimination not only bars the prosecution from calling him/her as a witness at the trial of a criminal case against him/her, but also bars the plaintiff from calling him/her as a witness at the trial of a civil case against him/her.

True    False

 

18. In Miranda v. Arizona the United Supreme Court mandated that police officers have to give suspects a warning about their rights.

True    False

 

19. The Fifth Amendment guarantees indigent defendants the right to court-appointed counsel.

True    False

 

20. Corporations may be held criminally liable even in the absence of proof that high corporate officers ordered or acquiesced in the offense charged.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

21. A(n) _____ is a serious crime such as murder, sexual assault, arson, drug-dealing, or a theft or fraud offense of sufficient magnitude.

A. misdemeanor

 

B. felony

 

C. tort

 

D. infraction

 

22. Infractions:

A. involve significant moral culpability on the offender’s part.

 

B. are not punishable by fines.

 

C. are a serious crime.

 

D. are not punishable by confinement in jail.

 

23. _____ believe that prevention of socially undesirable behavior is the only proper purpose of criminal penalties.

A. Utilitarians

 

B. Ethical pragmatists

 

C. Virtue ethicists

 

D. Deontologists

 

24. What is recidivism?

A. A special theory of deterrence

 

B. A quasi-criminal offense punished by light fines

 

C. Repeat offenses by previously punished offenders

 

D. Attempts to change the behavior of convicted offenders

 

25. _____ is the change in the attitudes or values of convicted offenders so that they are not inclined to commit future offenses.

A. Recidivism

 

B. Rehabilitation

 

C. Retribution

 

D. Probation

 

26. _____ is effectively a conditional sentence that suspends the usual imprisonment and/or fine if the offender “toes the line” and meets other judicially imposed conditions for the period specified by the court.

A. Probation

 

B. Retribution

 

C. Prevention

 

D. Rehabilitation

 

27. According to the law, crimes are statutory offenses; this essentially means that:

A. it must be proved that the crime is dangerous or detrimental to society.

 

B. a behavior is not a crime unless a state legislature has criminalized it.

 

C. the prevention of crime should include deterrence and rehabilitation.

 

D. courts may assess punitive damages in order to punish the wrongdoer.

 

28. A defendant’s act must have been prohibited by statute at the time he/she committed it and the penalty imposed must be the one provided for at the time of his/her offense. This essentially indicates:

A. encouragement of deterrence laws.

 

B. the presence of nulla poena sine lege laws.

 

C. prohibition of ex post facto criminal laws.

 

D. the presence of retributive justice.

 

29. The First Amendment limits governmental power to enact and enforce criminal laws by prohibiting:

A. warrantless searches.

 

B. arbitrary discrimination among different classes of people.

 

C. cruel and unusual punishments.

 

D. laws that restrict freedom of speech.

 

30. Commercial speech receives what form of protection under the First Amendment:

A. Intermediate protection

 

B. Full constitutional protection

 

C. Minimal protection

 

D. No protection

 

31. The ____ Amendment forbids cruel and unusual punishments.

A. First

 

B. Eighth

 

C. Fourteenth

 

D. Fifteenth

 

32. The Equal Protection Clause is derived from which amendment to the U.S. Constitution?

A. First

 

B. Fourteenth

 

C. Tenth

 

D. Second

 

33. The standard of proof in a criminal case is:

A. proof by a preponderance of the evidence.

 

B. proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

 

C. proof that is “more likely than not.”

 

D. proof beyond the presumption of innocence.

 

34. Most serious crimes require mens rea, or criminal:

A. behavior.

 

B. violation.

 

C. intent.

 

D. prosecution.

 

35. _____ means that the accused failed to perceive a substantial risk of harm that a reasonable person would have perceived.

A. Duress

 

B. Recklessness

 

C. Exculpation

 

D. Negligence

 

36. Although not a complete defense to criminal liability, _____ may diminish the degree of a defendant’s responsibility in a crime.

A. voluntary intoxication

 

B. premeditation

 

C. infancy

 

D. insanity

 

37. Assume that a state, acting through the appropriate county prosecutor, plans to initiate a felony prosecution against Joe Beck. Further assume that the state is among those in which felony defendants may be charged by either of the two methods discussed in the text. Which of the following is an accurate statement?

A. If a preliminary hearing is held and the judge conducting it concludes that there is probable cause to believe that Beck committed the charged felony, the judge (who presided over the preliminary hearing) will find Beck guilty and sentence him accordingly.

 

B. If the prosecutor decides to follow the information route to initiating the felony prosecution, Beck is entitled to insist that a grand jury be convened to determine whether he should be prosecuted by the state.

 

C. If a preliminary hearing is held, the state must prove Beck’s guilt beyond a reasonable doubt in order to carry its burden of proof at the preliminary hearing stage.

 

D. If a preliminary hearing is held and the magistrate conducting it concludes that there is probable cause to believe that Beck committed the charged felony, the magistrate binds over the defendant for trial in the appropriate court.

 

38. What occurs during an arraignment of a criminal defendant?

A. Defendant is informed of charges against them and pleads guilty or not guilty.

 

B. Both the prosecutor and defense select a jury for trial.

 

C. The prosecutor and defense argue over the admissibility of key evidence.

 

D. The jury delivers its verdict of the case.

 

39. Which of the following serves essentially the same function as a magistrate’s probable cause determination?

A. Arraignment

 

B. Special deterrence

 

C. Indictment

 

D. Incapacitation

 

40. A(n) _____ is a formal charge signed by the prosecutor outlining the facts supporting the charges against the defendant.

A. booking

 

B. indictment

 

C. information

 

D. arraignment

 

41. The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution:

A. protects persons against all searches and seizures.

 

B. provides protection to places or items as to which the Court found no reasonable expectations of privacy such as open fields and personal bank records.

 

C. provides protection to matters such as voluntary conversations between criminal defendants and government informants.

 

D. protects persons against arbitrary and unreasonable governmental violations of their privacy rights.

 

42. Which of the following would the United States Supreme Court deny there is a reasonable expectation of privacy for items in these locations?

A. Private Dwellings

 

B. Offices

 

C. Mail

 

D. Items left in an open field

 

43. Which of the following characterizes searches?

A. It is covered by the Fourteenth Amendment.

 

B. Warrants are not required for a search on private property.

 

C. Consensual searches without warrants violate the Fourth Amendment.

 

D. Customs searches are valid without a warrant.

 

44. Which Untied States Supreme Court case indicated that the search incident to arrest exception does not permit a police officer from searching a smart phone of an individual who was arrested without a warrant?

A. Riley v. California

 

B. Miranda v. Arizona

 

C. Maryland v. King

 

D. Marbury v. Madison

 

45. What is the basic remedial device in cases of Fourth Amendment violations?

A. Exclusionary rule

 

B. Due process clause

 

C. Habeas corpus

 

D. Counterclaim

 

46. When a court applies the exclusionary rule in a criminal case, it means that:

A. the case will be dismissed.

 

B. the defendant will be convicted.

 

C. the evidence will not be admitted at trial.

 

D. an arraignment will not take place.

 

47. Assume that an applicable state statute makes it a crime for a private citizen to possess a machine gun. For approximately three weeks, officer Roy Holt had had probable cause to believe that Alex Hood, a private citizen, possessed an arsenal of machine guns in his apartment. Acting on this probable cause but without a warrant, Holt knocked on the door of Hood’s apartment and asked Hood if he could come in to talk to him. Hood let Holt in. Then, without Hood’s consent, Holt began searching the entire apartment. Holt found several machine guns in the bedroom closet. He arrested Hood for an alleged violation of the statute mentioned above. In a pretrial motion, Hood’s attorney has asked that the court apply the exclusionary rule and suppress the evidence yielded by Holt’s search of Hood’s apartment. Should the evidence be suppressed?

A. No, because Holt had probable cause to believe that Hood had the machine guns in his apartment.

 

B. Yes, because the unconsented search did not fall within the exceptions to the general rule that warrantless searches are unreasonable.

 

C. No, because Hood voluntarily allowed Holt to enter the apartment and because the machine guns were in plain view in the closet.

 

D. Yes, because the search, though warrantless, was conducted by an officer who was acting to further the public’s safety.

 

48. When conducting an investigation of terrorism federal authorities seek warrants from what court?

A. FISA court

 

B. Federal District Court for the District of Columbia

 

C. The International Criminal Court

 

D. The UN High Court on Terrorism

 

49. Which of the following is a criticism of the U.S.A. Patriot Act?

A. It covers a narrow range of activities associated with terrorism.

 

B. It does not permit warrants for “roving” wiretaps.

 

C. It delays the sanctioning of search warrants.

 

D. It gives undue freedom to law enforcement agencies.

 

50. Which of the following is true of the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA)?

A. It was enacted as a result of the U.S.A. Patriot Act.

 

B. It has not been amended after its enactment.

 

C. It prohibits surveillance or monitoring without a warrant.

 

D. It has expanded the government’s ability to monitor the phone calls of suspected terrorists.

 

51. The _____ Amendment protects against compelled testimonial self-incrimination by establishing that “[n]o person … shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself.”

A. Fifth

 

B. Fourth

 

C. Sixth

 

D. Eighth

 

52. Rachael was arrested by the police on suspicion of possession of a controlled substance. She was informed of her Miranda rights. Rachael waived her right to remain silent and confessed to the crime after a brief period of police interrogation. Her confession is:

A. admissible, according to Supreme Court precedent.

 

B. inadmissible because it was obtained in violation of her Fourth Amendment rights.

 

C. admissible, according to the “search incident to a lawful arrest” exception to Miranda.

 

D. inadmissible because it was obtained in violation of her Fifth Amendment rights.

 

53. Which of the following is guaranteed by the Sixth Amendment?

A. The right to remain silent

 

B. The right to a speedy trial by an impartial jury

 

C. The right to refuse custodial interrogation

 

D. The right to refuse unreasonable searches

 

54. Which of the following is true about the Fifth Amendment and the production of records?

A. It would allow a Bogus Inc., officer who has custody of Bogus records to resist a subpoena demanding production of those records if the contents of the records could incriminate that officer personally.

 

B. It would prevent a sole proprietor from being compelled to produce his/her business records if the act of producing such records was not testimonial in nature.

 

C. It may be asserted by a corporation, partnership, or other collective entity on the same basis that an individual human being could assert it.

 

D. It does not protect “required records” from being subpoenaed and used against the record keeper in criminal prosecutions.

 

55. The Double Jeopardy Clause:

A. establishes that a person cannot be prosecuted by the state for a state crime after being acquitted of a federal crime, if the two alleged crimes involved essentially the same facts.

 

B. protects criminal defendants from having to undergo more than one prosecution by the same sovereign for the same criminal offense.

 

C. establishes that a single criminal act with multiple victims cannot result in more than one criminal prosecution.

 

D. bars a private plaintiff from pursuing a civil case against the defendant who was criminally prosecuted for the same alleged conduct.

 

56. “White-collar crime” is the term used to describe a wide variety of offenses committed by:

A. the average working class.

 

B. poor Americans.

 

C. businesspersons.

 

D. juveniles.

 

57. The expansion of corporate criminal liability in imputing the criminal intent of employees to the corporation falls under the scope of:

A. mens rea.

 

B. presumption of innocence.

 

C. double jeopardy.

 

D. respondeat superior.

 

58. Average Corp. was convicted of violating the federal mail fraud statute due to the activities of some of its employees, who had used the U.S. mail to perpetrate a fraudulent scheme designed to advance the otherwise legitimate business interests of Average. Average has appealed, arguing that its conviction should be set aside because the employees in question were relatively minor officials of the company and were acting without the knowledge or consent of any high-level corporate officer. In addition, Average argues that the involved employees were acting in violation of a longstanding and well-known Average policy against fraudulent schemes. Should Average’s conviction be set aside?

A. Yes, because Average could not have had the necessary mens rea.

 

B. No, because the involved employees were acting within the scope of their employment and for the benefit of Average.

 

C. No, because nothing in the facts indicates that Average should qualify for the protection of the due diligence defense recognized by most courts.

 

D. Yes, because high-level corporate officers must be involved and they were not involved. Here in order for criminal intent to be imputed to the corporation.

 

59. Strict liability offenses:

A. dispense with the requirement of proof of any criminal intent on the part of the defendant.

 

B. are so classified because the punishments imposed on violators are especially harsh in comparison to the punishments for other criminal offenses.

 

C. impose liability on a defendant for the act of another party.

 

D. are commonly criticized on the ground that a person may not be convicted of such an offense without being shown to have committed a wrongful act.

 

60. Agreements under which corporations avoid formal criminal charges and trials in return for their agreement to pay monetary penalties and submit to outside monitoring of their activities are called:

A. non-prosecution agreements.

 

B. plea agreements.

 

C. deferred guaranty agreements.

 

D. deferred prosecution agreements.

 

61. Kathy was accused of securities fraud. During the government investigation, she destroyed relevant documents. Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, Kathy may:

A. be civilly but not criminally liable for the destruction of documents.

 

B. face fines but not prison for the destruction of documents.

 

C. face fines and/or a maximum of 20 years in prison.

 

D. be considered a “whistleblower.”

 

62. Which of the following is a provision of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002?

A. It imposed a maximum of 15 years of imprisonment as punishment for the destruction of documents.

 

B. It decreased the maximum term of imprisonment for mail fraud and wire fraud to 15 years.

 

C. It provided legal protection for corporate employees who act as whistleblowers.

 

D. It shortened the statute of limitations period within which certain securities fraud cases may be filed.

 

63. The Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act’s (RICO’s) most controversial sections allow:

A. federal prosecutors to seek pretrial orders freezing a defendant’s assets.

 

B. the government to seek injunctions against future racketeering activities.

 

C. private individuals to recover treble damages for a statutory violation.

 

D. government intervention in white-collar crimes.

 

64. Which of the following characterizes the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)?

A. It is a statute enacted by a state legislature.

 

B. It imposes only civil liabilities in fraud cases.

 

C. It imposes only criminal liabilities in fraud cases.

 

D. It imposes liabilities in cases concerning interstate commerce.

 

 

Essay Questions

65. Police detective Brenda Judd had a hunch that Beats, Inc., a retail seller of stereo equipment and related supplies, was involved in a drug-smuggling operation. In order to acquire evidence confirming her hunch, Judd posed as an ordinary consumer when she entered the Beats store. She slipped out of the “public” part of the store and proceeded down a hall to an office whose closed door was marked “Private. No Entry without Authorization from Manager.” She entered the office which was unoccupied, looked through files, and located documentary evidence indicating that Beats was indeed involved in an illegal operation. The evidence obtained by Judd furnished the primary basis for drug-smuggling and drug-dealing charges that are now pending against Beats. Beats has filed a pretrial motion asking the court to suppress the evidence obtained by Judd in her search of the office. Should the evidence be suppressed? Why or why not?

 

 

 

 

66. Since the exclusionary rule has often resulted in suppression of convincing evidence of crime, it has generated controversy. How has the Supreme Court dealt with this?

 

 

 

 

67. Nigel is the sole proprietor of a construction contracting business. As part of an investigation into bid-rigging allegations, a grand jury issued a subpoena directing Nigel to turn over various records relating to his sole proprietorship. Nigel had voluntarily prepared the subpoenaed records. The government had long known that these records probably existed, but of course did not know of their contents. Nigel resisted the subpoena on Fifth Amendment grounds, arguing that being forced to comply would violate his privilege against self-incrimination. Should Nigel be required to comply with the subpoena? Why or why not?

 

 

 

 

68. Sal Conelli is the president and sole stockholder of Salco, Inc., a corporation engaged in the wholesale food supply business. Conelli has custody of Salco’s business records. A grand jury investigating possible criminal violations of health codes applicable to food products has served a subpoena demanding that certain Salco business records be made available. Conelli plans to resist the subpoena by arguing that compelling the production of the records would violate both his and Salco’s Fifth Amendment privileges against self-incrimination. Should Conelli succeed with this argument? Explain your reasoning.

 

 

 

 

69. Leviathan Corp. has filed a civil Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO) lawsuit against NBS Bros., an accounting firm. NBS has asked the court to dismiss the case for two reasons: first, Leviathan did not allege, and cannot prove, that NBS is connected in any way with organized crime, as that term is customarily used; and second, Leviathan did not allege, and cannot prove, that NBS was criminally convicted of a predicate offense. Should NBS succeed with these arguments? Explain your reasoning.

 

 

 

 

Chapter 05 Criminal Law and Procedure Answer Key

True / False Questions

1. Special deterrence results when punishment of a wrongdoer deters other persons from committing similar offenses.

FALSE

Special deterrence results when the punishment of an offender deters him/her as opposed to others from committing similar offenses.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

2. When Congress created the U.S. Sentencing Commission and charged it with creating Sentencing Guidelines, Congress sought (among other things) to decrease the discretion of judges in making sentencing decisions.

TRUE

The guidelines were created with a view to reducing judicial discretion in sentencing and minimizing disparities among sentences imposed on defendants who committed the same offenses.

Refer: Figure 1

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

3. When a judge’s sentencing decision is challenged on appeal, the governing standard will be one of reasonableness.

TRUE

In the 2005 United States v. Booker case, the Supreme Court stated that in the case of a judge’s sentencing decision being challenged on appeal, the governing standard will be one of reasonableness.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

4. The U.S. Constitution allows ex post facto criminal laws.

FALSE

The U.S. Constitution prohibits ex post facto criminal laws. This means that a defendant’s act must have been prohibited by statute at the time he/she committed it and that the penalty imposed must be the one provided for at the time of his/her offense.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

5. Crimes are private wrongs.

FALSE

Torts are private wrongs and crimes are public wrongs, acts prohibited by the state or federal government.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of Criminal Law
 

 

6. Obscene noncommercial expressions receive no First Amendment protection.

TRUE

The Supreme Court has established that obscene expressions receive no First Amendment protection.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Explain why the First Amendment may sometimes serve as a defense to criminal liability.
Topic: Role of the Criminal
 

 

7. The Eighth Amendment forbids cruel and unusual punishments.

TRUE

The Constitution limits the type of punishment imposed on convicted offenders in criminal cases. The Eighth Amendment forbids cruel and unusual punishments in criminal cases.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Identify the constitutional provisions at issue when a criminal law is challenged as being excessively vague.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

8. The Equal Protection Clause prevents states and the federal government from enacting criminal laws that discriminate against different classes of individuals.

TRUE

The Fourteenth Amendment’s Equal Protection Clause prohibits criminal statutes that discriminatory treat certain persons differently.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Identify the constitutional provisions at issue when a criminal law is challenged as being excessively vague.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

9. Voluntary intoxication usually serves as a complete defense to criminal liability.

FALSE

Voluntary intoxication does not serve as a complete defense to criminal liability although it may decrease the degree of a defendant’s responsibility.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Identify the standard of proof that the government must meet in a criminal prosecution; as well as the constitutional sources of that requirement.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

10. In the United States a defendant in a criminal trial is presumed innocent.

TRUE

Defendants in criminal cases are presumed innocent until proven guilty. This is called presumption of innocence.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Identify the standard of proof that the government must meet in a criminal prosecution; as well as the constitutional sources of that requirement.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

11. At a preliminary hearing in a felony case, the government must prove its case by the “beyond a reasonable doubt” standard.

FALSE

At a preliminary hearing, the prosecutor must provide enough evidence to prove that there is a probable cause to believe the accused committed a felony for which the accused is being charged.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Identify the major steps in a criminal prosecution.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

12. The language of the Bill of Rights only refers to actions of the federal government so the protections of the Bill of Rights do not apply to state government action.

FALSE

Although the literal language of the Bill of Rights refers only to federal government actions, the U.S. Supreme Court has applied the guarantees of the Bill of Rights to State government action through the Fourteenth Amendment Due Process Clause.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Identify the major steps in a criminal prosecution.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

13. Owners of commercial property enjoy greater privacy expectations in their property for Fourth Amendment purposes than do owners of residential property.

FALSE

The protection enjoyed by owners of residential property under the Fourth Amendment is far greater than that enjoyed by owners of commercial property. The Supreme Court has ruled in O’Connor v. Ortega that alleged violations of the Fourth Amendment in the realm of commercial property need to be studied on a case-to-case basis.

Refer: United States v. SDI Future Health, Inc. case

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-06 Describe the basic protections afforded by the Fourth; Fifth; and Sixth Amendments.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

14. Officers may conduct a warrantless search of an individual at the time of an arrest.

TRUE

Officers may conduct a warrantless search of an arrestee, the items in his/her possession and items within their control. This is called a search incident to lawful arrest and is used to protect an officer while also protecting potential evidence.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-07 Describe major exceptions to the Fourth Amendment’s usual preference that the government have a warrant before conducting a search.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

15. During a ‘Terry Stop’ officers may not conduct a pat down search of an individual without a warrant.

FALSE

During a ‘Terry Stop’ the Supreme Court has held that the Fourth Amendment permits such police action as a pat down search of a detain person in order to determine if that individual is carrying a weapon and could endanger the officers.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-07 Describe major exceptions to the Fourth Amendment’s usual preference that the government have a warrant before conducting a search.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

16. Under the U.S.A. PATRIOT Act, the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA) Court may issue warrants of the “sneak and peek” variety.

TRUE

The Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Court can issue the “sneak and peek” warrants where the FBI need not produce the warrant for the property owner or possessor to see and need not notify an absent property owner or possessor that the search took place.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-08 Explain what the exclusionary rule is.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

17. A defendant’s constitutional right to be free from compelled testimonial self-incrimination not only bars the prosecution from calling him/her as a witness at the trial of a criminal case against him/her, but also bars the plaintiff from calling him/her as a witness at the trial of a civil case against him/her.

FALSE

The Fifth Amendment protects against compelled testimonial self-incrimination by establishing that “[n]o person … shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself.” This provision prevents the government from coercing a defendant into making incriminating statements and thereby assisting in his/her own prosecution. The Fifth Amendment does give protection to individuals in a civil case.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 List the components of the Miranda warnings and state when law enforcement officers must give those warnings.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

18. In Miranda v. Arizona the United Supreme Court mandated that police officers have to give suspects a warning about their rights.

TRUE

In its decision in Miranda v. Arizona the United States Supreme Court established procedural requirements to safeguard the Fifth Amendment by requiring police to inform criminal suspects of their rights prior to an interrogation.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-09 List the components of the Miranda warnings and state when law enforcement officers must give those warnings.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

19. The Fifth Amendment guarantees indigent defendants the right to court-appointed counsel.

FALSE

The Sixth Amendment provision has been interpreted to mean not only that the accused in a criminal case may employ his/her own attorney but also that an indigent criminal defendant is entitled to court-appointed counsel.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-06 Describe the basic protections afforded by the Fourth; Fifth; and Sixth Amendments.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

20. Corporations may be held criminally liable even in the absence of proof that high corporate officers ordered or acquiesced in the offense charged.

TRUE

Recognizing the problem that it may be impossible to prove that any higher level corporate official was involved in corporate offenses, the courts generally follow this rule.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-06 Describe the basic protections afforded by the Fourth; Fifth; and Sixth Amendments.
Topic: White-Collar Crimes and the Dilemmas of Corporate Control
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

21. A(n) _____ is a serious crime such as murder, sexual assault, arson, drug-dealing, or a theft or fraud offense of sufficient magnitude.

A. misdemeanor

 

B. felony

 

C. tort

 

D. infraction

A felony is a serious crime such as murder, sexual assault, arson, drug-dealing, or a theft or fraud offense of sufficient magnitude. Felonies are punishable by lengthy confinement of the convicted offender to a penitentiary, as well as by a fine.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

22. Infractions:

A. involve significant moral culpability on the offender’s part.

 

B. are not punishable by fines.

 

C. are a serious crime.

 

D. are not punishable by confinement in jail.

Generally considered only quasi-criminal, infractions usually are punishable by fines but not by confinement in jail.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

23. _____ believe that prevention of socially undesirable behavior is the only proper purpose of criminal penalties.

A. Utilitarians

 

B. Ethical pragmatists

 

C. Virtue ethicists

 

D. Deontologists

Persons accepting the utilitarian view believe that prevention of socially undesirable behavior is the only proper purpose of criminal penalties. This prevention goal includes three major components: deterrence, rehabilitation, and incapacitation.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

24. What is recidivism?

A. A special theory of deterrence

 

B. A quasi-criminal offense punished by light fines

 

C. Repeat offenses by previously punished offenders

 

D. Attempts to change the behavior of convicted offenders

Recidivism is the phenomenon of repeat offenses by previously punished offenders.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

25. _____ is the change in the attitudes or values of convicted offenders so that they are not inclined to commit future offenses.

A. Recidivism

 

B. Rehabilitation

 

C. Retribution

 

D. Probation

Rehabilitation of convicted offenders involves changing their attitudes or values so that they are not inclined to commit future offenses. It serves as a way to prevent future offenses.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

26. _____ is effectively a conditional sentence that suspends the usual imprisonment and/or fine if the offender “toes the line” and meets other judicially imposed conditions for the period specified by the court.

A. Probation

 

B. Retribution

 

C. Prevention

 

D. Rehabilitation

Probation is effectively a conditional sentence that suspends the usual imprisonment and/or fine if the offender “toes the line” and meets other judicially imposed conditions for the period specified by the court. It is sometimes granted to first-time offenders.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

27. According to the law, crimes are statutory offenses; this essentially means that:

A. it must be proved that the crime is dangerous or detrimental to society.

 

B. a behavior is not a crime unless a state legislature has criminalized it.

 

C. the prevention of crime should include deterrence and rehabilitation.

 

D. courts may assess punitive damages in order to punish the wrongdoer.

Crimes are statutory offenses. A given behavior is not a crime unless Congress or a state legislature has criminalized it.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

28. A defendant’s act must have been prohibited by statute at the time he/she committed it and the penalty imposed must be the one provided for at the time of his/her offense. This essentially indicates:

A. encouragement of deterrence laws.

 

B. the presence of nulla poena sine lege laws.

 

C. prohibition of ex post facto criminal laws.

 

D. the presence of retributive justice.

The U.S. Constitution prohibits ex post facto criminal laws. This means that a defendant’s act must have been prohibited by statute at the time he/she committed it and that the penalty imposed must be the one provided for at the time of his/her offense.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the difference between a felony and a misdemeanor.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

29. The First Amendment limits governmental power to enact and enforce criminal laws by prohibiting:

A. warrantless searches.

 

B. arbitrary discrimination among different classes of people.

 

C. cruel and unusual punishments.

 

D. laws that restrict freedom of speech.

By prohibiting laws that unreasonably restrict freedom of speech, the First Amendment plays a major role in limiting governmental power to enact and enforce criminal laws.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Explain why the First Amendment may sometimes serve as a defense to criminal liability.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

30. Commercial speech receives what form of protection under the First Amendment:

A. Intermediate protection

 

B. Full constitutional protection

 

C. Minimal protection

 

D. No protection

Commercial speech receives a less substantial First Amendment shield known as “intermediate protection.”

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Explain why the First Amendment may sometimes serve as a defense to criminal liability.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

31. The ____ Amendment forbids cruel and unusual punishments.

A. First

 

B. Eighth

 

C. Fourteenth

 

D. Fifteenth

The Eighth Amendment forbids cruel and unusual punishments. This prohibition furnishes, for example, the constitutional basis for judicial decisions establishing limits on imposition of the death penalty.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Identify the constitutional provisions at issue when a criminal law is challenged as being excessively vague.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

32. The Equal Protection Clause is derived from which amendment to the U.S. Constitution?

A. First

 

B. Fourteenth

 

C. Tenth

 

D. Second

The Equal Protection Clause comes from the Fourteenth Amendment and prohibits criminal statutes that discriminate against certain classes of individuals.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Identify the constitutional provisions at issue when a criminal law is challenged as being excessively vague.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

33. The standard of proof in a criminal case is:

A. proof by a preponderance of the evidence.

 

B. proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

 

C. proof that is “more likely than not.”

 

D. proof beyond the presumption of innocence.

Defendants in criminal cases are presumed innocent until proven guilty. The Due Process Clauses require the government to overcome this presumption by proving beyond a reasonable doubt every element of the offense charged against the defendant.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-04 Identify the standard of proof that the government must meet in a criminal prosecution; as well as the constitutional sources of that requirement.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

34. Most serious crimes require mens rea, or criminal:

A. behavior.

 

B. violation.

 

C. intent.

 

D. prosecution.

Most serious crimes require mens rea, or criminal intent, as an element. The level of fault required for a criminal violation depends on the wording of the relevant statute.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Identify the standard of proof that the government must meet in a criminal prosecution; as well as the constitutional sources of that requirement.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

35. _____ means that the accused failed to perceive a substantial risk of harm that a reasonable person would have perceived.

A. Duress

 

B. Recklessness

 

C. Exculpation

 

D. Negligence

In the criminal context, recklessness generally means that the accused consciously disregarded a substantial risk that the harm prohibited by the statute would result from his/her actions. Negligence means that the accused failed to perceive a substantial risk of harm that a reasonable person would have perceived.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Identify the standard of proof that the government must meet in a criminal prosecution; as well as the constitutional sources of that requirement.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

36. Although not a complete defense to criminal liability, _____ may diminish the degree of a defendant’s responsibility in a crime.

A. voluntary intoxication

 

B. premeditation

 

C. infancy

 

D. insanity

Although intoxication is a not a complete defense to criminal liability, it may diminish the degree of a defendant’s responsibility.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-04 Identify the standard of proof that the government must meet in a criminal prosecution; as well as the constitutional sources of that requirement.
Topic: Role of the Criminal Law
 

 

37. Assume that a state, acting through the appropriate county prosecutor, plans to initiate a felony prosecution against Joe Beck. Further assume that the state is among those in which felony defendants may be charged by either of the two methods discussed in the text. Which of the following is an accurate statement?

A. If a preliminary hearing is held and the judge conducting it concludes that there is probable cause to believe that Beck committed the charged felony, the judge (who presided over the preliminary hearing) will find Beck guilty and sentence him accordingly.

 

B. If the prosecutor decides to follow the information route to initiating the felony prosecution, Beck is entitled to insist that a grand jury be convened to determine whether he should be prosecuted by the state.

 

C. If a preliminary hearing is held, the state must prove Beck’s guilt beyond a reasonable doubt in order to carry its burden of proof at the preliminary hearing stage.

 

D. If a preliminary hearing is held and the magistrate conducting it concludes that there is probable cause to believe that Beck committed the charged felony, the magistrate binds over the defendant for trial in the appropriate court.

The prosecutor must provide sufficient details at the preliminary hearing of a felony case to prove that there is a probable case. If the magistrate is convinced so, he/she will bind over the defendant for trial in the appropriate court.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-05 Identify the major steps in a criminal prosecution.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

38. What occurs during an arraignment of a criminal defendant?

A. Defendant is informed of charges against them and pleads guilty or not guilty.

 

B. Both the prosecutor and defense select a jury for trial.

 

C. The prosecutor and defense argue over the admissibility of key evidence.

 

D. The jury delivers its verdict of the case.

In an arraignment the defendant is brought before the court, informed of the charges and asked to enter a plea.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Identify the major steps in a criminal prosecution.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

39. Which of the following serves essentially the same function as a magistrate’s probable cause determination?

A. Arraignment

 

B. Special deterrence

 

C. Indictment

 

D. Incapacitation

Indictment of an accused prior to a preliminary hearing normally eliminates the need for a preliminary hearing because the indictment serves essentially the same function as a magistrate’s probable cause determination.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Identify the major steps in a criminal prosecution.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

40. A(n) _____ is a formal charge signed by the prosecutor outlining the facts supporting the charges against the defendant.

A. booking

 

B. indictment

 

C. information

 

D. arraignment

An information is a formal charge signed by the prosecutor outlining the facts supporting the charges against the defendant.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Identify the major steps in a criminal prosecution.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

41. The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution:

A. protects persons against all searches and seizures.

 

B. provides protection to places or items as to which the Court found no reasonable expectations of privacy such as open fields and personal bank records.

 

C. provides protection to matters such as voluntary conversations between criminal defendants and government informants.

 

D. protects persons against arbitrary and unreasonable governmental violations of their privacy rights.

The Fourth Amendment protects persons against arbitrary and unreasonable governmental violations of their privacy rights. Citizens are not protected against all searches and seizures. The Court has denied protection to places, items, or matters as to which it found no reasonable expectations of privacy, such as open fields, personal bank records, and voluntary conversations between criminal defendants and government informants.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-06 Describe the basic protections afforded by the Fourth; Fifth; and Sixth Amendments.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

42. Which of the following would the United States Supreme Court deny there is a reasonable expectation of privacy for items in these locations?

A. Private Dwellings

 

B. Offices

 

C. Mail

 

D. Items left in an open field

The Supreme Court has held that the Fourth Amendment’s protection extends to such places as a private dwelling, offices and mail. The court has denied Fourth Amendment protections to items left in an open field.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-06 Describe the basic protections afforded by the Fourth; Fifth; and Sixth Amendments.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

43. Which of the following characterizes searches?

A. It is covered by the Fourteenth Amendment.

 

B. Warrants are not required for a search on private property.

 

C. Consensual searches without warrants violate the Fourth Amendment.

 

D. Customs searches are valid without a warrant.

Customs searches, stop-and-frisk searches for weapons, and administrative inspections of closely regulated businesses, are allowed even in the absence of a warrant.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-07 Describe major exceptions to the Fourth Amendment’s usual preference that the government have a warrant before conducting a search.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

44. Which Untied States Supreme Court case indicated that the search incident to arrest exception does not permit a police officer from searching a smart phone of an individual who was arrested without a warrant?

A. Riley v. California

 

B. Miranda v. Arizona

 

C. Maryland v. King

 

D. Marbury v. Madison

In Riley v. California the court held that the search-incident-to-arrest doctrine does not justify a search of an arrestee’s cellphone or smartphone without a warrant.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-07 Describe major exceptions to the Fourth Amendment’s usual preference that the government have a warrant before conducting a search.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

45. What is the basic remedial device in cases of Fourth Amendment violations?

A. Exclusionary rule

 

B. Due process clause

 

C. Habeas corpus

 

D. Counterclaim

The exclusionary rule serves as the basic remedial device in cases of Fourth Amendment violations. Under this rule, evidence seized in illegal searches cannot be used in a subsequent trial against an accused whose constitutional rights were violated.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-08 Explain what the exclusionary rule is.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

46. When a court applies the exclusionary rule in a criminal case, it means that:

A. the case will be dismissed.

 

B. the defendant will be convicted.

 

C. the evidence will not be admitted at trial.

 

D. an arraignment will not take place.

Under the exclusionary rule, evidence seized in illegal searches cannot be used in a subsequent trial.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-08 Explain what the exclusionary rule is.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

47. Assume that an applicable state statute makes it a crime for a private citizen to possess a machine gun. For approximately three weeks, officer Roy Holt had had probable cause to believe that Alex Hood, a private citizen, possessed an arsenal of machine guns in his apartment. Acting on this probable cause but without a warrant, Holt knocked on the door of Hood’s apartment and asked Hood if he could come in to talk to him. Hood let Holt in. Then, without Hood’s consent, Holt began searching the entire apartment. Holt found several machine guns in the bedroom closet. He arrested Hood for an alleged violation of the statute mentioned above. In a pretrial motion, Hood’s attorney has asked that the court apply the exclusionary rule and suppress the evidence yielded by Holt’s search of Hood’s apartment. Should the evidence be suppressed?

A. No, because Holt had probable cause to believe that Hood had the machine guns in his apartment.

 

B. Yes, because the unconsented search did not fall within the exceptions to the general rule that warrantless searches are unreasonable.

 

C. No, because Hood voluntarily allowed Holt to enter the apartment and because the machine guns were in plain view in the closet.

 

D. Yes, because the search, though warrantless, was conducted by an officer who was acting to further the public’s safety.

Under the exclusionary rule, evidence seized in illegal searches cannot be produced as evidence in a trial. Since Holt did not a have a lawful warrant to search Hood’s apartment, the prosecution cannot produce their findings as evidence in court.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-08 Explain what the exclusionary rule is.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

48. When conducting an investigation of terrorism federal authorities seek warrants from what court?

A. FISA court

 

B. Federal District Court for the District of Columbia

 

C. The International Criminal Court

 

D. The UN High Court on Terrorism

The Patriot Act allows the federal government significantly expanded ability to conduct searches in terrorism case. Under the Patriot Act the federal government will seek warrants from the FISA court.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-08 Explain what the exclusionary rule is.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

49. Which of the following is a criticism of the U.S.A. Patriot Act?

A. It covers a narrow range of activities associated with terrorism.

 

B. It does not permit warrants for “roving” wiretaps.

 

C. It delays the sanctioning of search warrants.

 

D. It gives undue freedom to law enforcement agencies.

Commentators critical of the Patriot Act have argued that despite the importance of safeguarding the public against acts of terrorism, the statute tips the balance too heavily in favor of law enforcement.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-08 Explain what the exclusionary rule is.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

50. Which of the following is true of the Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA)?

A. It was enacted as a result of the U.S.A. Patriot Act.

 

B. It has not been amended after its enactment.

 

C. It prohibits surveillance or monitoring without a warrant.

 

D. It has expanded the government’s ability to monitor the phone calls of suspected terrorists.

The Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act (FISA) was enacted long before the U.S.A. PATRIOT Act, and has been amended various times both before and since. It has also been extensively used by the federal government to conduct surveillance activities. In 2008, a further amendment to FISA expanded the government’s ability to monitor the phone calls of suspected terrorists, established FISA’s requirement of warrants from the FISA Court as the exclusive way of exercising this surveillance power, and provided immunity from legal liability for telephone companies that had assisted the government in the phone call monitoring activities for which FISA Court warrants had not been obtained.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-08 Explain what the exclusionary rule is.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

51. The _____ Amendment protects against compelled testimonial self-incrimination by establishing that “[n]o person … shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself.”

A. Fifth

 

B. Fourth

 

C. Sixth

 

D. Eighth

The Fifth Amendment protects against compelled testimonial self-incrimination by establishing that “[n]o person … shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself.”

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 List the components of the Miranda warnings and state when law enforcement officers must give those warnings.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

52. Rachael was arrested by the police on suspicion of possession of a controlled substance. She was informed of her Miranda rights. Rachael waived her right to remain silent and confessed to the crime after a brief period of police interrogation. Her confession is:

A. admissible, according to Supreme Court precedent.

 

B. inadmissible because it was obtained in violation of her Fourth Amendment rights.

 

C. admissible, according to the “search incident to a lawful arrest” exception to Miranda.

 

D. inadmissible because it was obtained in violation of her Fifth Amendment rights.

If the suspect knowingly and voluntarily waives her right to silence after having been given the Miranda warnings, her statements will be admissible.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-09 List the components of the Miranda warnings and state when law enforcement officers must give those warnings.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

53. Which of the following is guaranteed by the Sixth Amendment?

A. The right to remain silent

 

B. The right to a speedy trial by an impartial jury

 

C. The right to refuse custodial interrogation

 

D. The right to refuse unreasonable searches

The Sixth Amendment entitles criminal defendants to a speedy trial by an impartial jury and guarantees them the right to confront and cross-examine the witnesses against them.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-06 Describe the basic protections afforded by the Fourth; Fifth; and Sixth Amendments.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

54. Which of the following is true about the Fifth Amendment and the production of records?

A. It would allow a Bogus Inc., officer who has custody of Bogus records to resist a subpoena demanding production of those records if the contents of the records could incriminate that officer personally.

 

B. It would prevent a sole proprietor from being compelled to produce his/her business records if the act of producing such records was not testimonial in nature.

 

C. It may be asserted by a corporation, partnership, or other collective entity on the same basis that an individual human being could assert it.

 

D. It does not protect “required records” from being subpoenaed and used against the record keeper in criminal prosecutions.

Various decisions allow the government to require business proprietors to keep certain records relevant to transactions that are appropriate subjects for government regulation. These “required records” are not entitled to private papers protection. They may be subpoenaed and used against the record keeper in prosecutions for regulatory violations.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-06 Describe the basic protections afforded by the Fourth; Fifth; and Sixth Amendments.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

55. The Double Jeopardy Clause:

A. establishes that a person cannot be prosecuted by the state for a state crime after being acquitted of a federal crime, if the two alleged crimes involved essentially the same facts.

 

B. protects criminal defendants from having to undergo more than one prosecution by the same sovereign for the same criminal offense.

 

C. establishes that a single criminal act with multiple victims cannot result in more than one criminal prosecution.

 

D. bars a private plaintiff from pursuing a civil case against the defendant who was criminally prosecuted for the same alleged conduct.

The Double Jeopardy Clause prevents a second criminal prosecution for the same offense after the defendant has been acquitted or convicted of that offense.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-06 Describe the basic protections afforded by the Fourth; Fifth; and Sixth Amendments.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

56. “White-collar crime” is the term used to describe a wide variety of offenses committed by:

A. the average working class.

 

B. poor Americans.

 

C. businesspersons.

 

D. juveniles.

White-collar crime is the term used to describe a wide variety of nonviolent criminal offenses committed by businesspersons and business organizations. This term includes offenses committed by employees against their employers, as well as corporate officers’ offenses that harm the corporation and its shareholders.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-10 Identify the elements that the government must prove in a criminal RICO case and that a private plaintiff must prove in a civil RICO case.
Topic: White-Collar Crimes and the Dilemmas of Corporate Control
 

 

57. The expansion of corporate criminal liability in imputing the criminal intent of employees to the corporation falls under the scope of:

A. mens rea.

 

B. presumption of innocence.

 

C. double jeopardy.

 

D. respondeat superior.

Under the doctrine of respondeat superior, the criminal intent of the employee is imputed to the corporation. This makes corporations more accountable for actions by their employees.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-10 Identify the elements that the government must prove in a criminal RICO case and that a private plaintiff must prove in a civil RICO case.
Topic: White-Collar Crimes and the Dilemmas of Corporate Control
 

 

58. Average Corp. was convicted of violating the federal mail fraud statute due to the activities of some of its employees, who had used the U.S. mail to perpetrate a fraudulent scheme designed to advance the otherwise legitimate business interests of Average. Average has appealed, arguing that its conviction should be set aside because the employees in question were relatively minor officials of the company and were acting without the knowledge or consent of any high-level corporate officer. In addition, Average argues that the involved employees were acting in violation of a longstanding and well-known Average policy against fraudulent schemes. Should Average’s conviction be set aside?

A. Yes, because Average could not have had the necessary mens rea.

 

B. No, because the involved employees were acting within the scope of their employment and for the benefit of Average.

 

C. No, because nothing in the facts indicates that Average should qualify for the protection of the due diligence defense recognized by most courts.

 

D. Yes, because high-level corporate officers must be involved and they were not involved. Here in order for criminal intent to be imputed to the corporation.

Under the modern rule, a corporation may be held liable for criminal offenses committed by employees who acted within the scope of their employment and for the benefit of the corporation.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-10 Identify the elements that the government must prove in a criminal RICO case and that a private plaintiff must prove in a civil RICO case.
Topic: White-Collar Crimes and the Dilemmas of Corporate Control
 

 

59. Strict liability offenses:

A. dispense with the requirement of proof of any criminal intent on the part of the defendant.

 

B. are so classified because the punishments imposed on violators are especially harsh in comparison to the punishments for other criminal offenses.

 

C. impose liability on a defendant for the act of another party.

 

D. are commonly criticized on the ground that a person may not be convicted of such an offense without being shown to have committed a wrongful act.

Strict liability offenses dispense with the requirement of proof of criminal intent but ordinarily require proof that the defendant committed some wrongful act.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-10 Identify the elements that the government must prove in a criminal RICO case and that a private plaintiff must prove in a civil RICO case.
Topic: White-Collar Crimes and the Dilemmas of Corporate Control
 

 

60. Agreements under which corporations avoid formal criminal charges and trials in return for their agreement to pay monetary penalties and submit to outside monitoring of their activities are called:

A. non-prosecution agreements.

 

B. plea agreements.

 

C. deferred guaranty agreements.

 

D. deferred prosecution agreements.

Under deferred prosecution agreements (DPAs), corporations avoid formal criminal charges and trials in return for their agreement to pay monetary penalties and submit to outside monitoring of their activities. They are seen as a means to encourage more responsible behavior from corporations.

 

AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-10 Identify the elements that the government must prove in a criminal RICO case and that a private plaintiff must prove in a civil RICO case.
Topic: White-Collar Crimes and the Dilemmas of Corporate Control
 

 

61. Kathy was accused of securities fraud. During the government investigation, she destroyed relevant documents. Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, Kathy may:

A. be civilly but not criminally liable for the destruction of documents.

 

B. face fines but not prison for the destruction of documents.

 

C. face fines and/or a maximum of 20 years in prison.

 

D. be considered a “whistleblower.”

Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, the knowing alteration or destruction of documents with the intent to hamper government investigations leads to substantial fines and/or a maximum of 20 years of imprisonment.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-10 Identify the elements that the government must prove in a criminal RICO case and that a private plaintiff must prove in a civil RICO case.
Topic: Important White-Collar Crimes
 

 

62. Which of the following is a provision of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002?

A. It imposed a maximum of 15 years of imprisonment as punishment for the destruction of documents.

 

B. It decreased the maximum term of imprisonment for mail fraud and wire fraud to 15 years.

 

C. It provided legal protection for corporate employees who act as whistleblowers.

 

D. It shortened the statute of limitations period within which certain securities fraud cases may be filed.

Congress enacted the Sarbanes-Oxley Act in 2002. Among other things, it provides legal protections for corporate employees who act as whistle-blowers regarding instances of fraud on the part of their employers.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-10 Identify the elements that the government must prove in a criminal RICO case and that a private plaintiff must prove in a civil RICO case.
Topic: Important White-Collar Crimes
 

 

63. The Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act’s (RICO’s) most controversial sections allow:

A. federal prosecutors to seek pretrial orders freezing a defendant’s assets.

 

B. the government to seek injunctions against future racketeering activities.

 

C. private individuals to recover treble damages for a statutory violation.

 

D. government intervention in white-collar crimes.

The Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act’s (RICO’s) most controversial sections allow private individuals to recover treble damages and attorney’s fees for injuries caused by a statutory violation. To qualify for recovery under RICO, a plaintiff must prove that the defendant violated RICO’s provisions and that the plaintiff was “injured in his/her business or property by reason of” the RICO violation. A direct causation link must exist between the RICO violation and the harm experienced by the plaintiff.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-10 Identify the elements that the government must prove in a criminal RICO case and that a private plaintiff must prove in a civil RICO case.
Topic: Important White-Collar Crimes
 

 

64. Which of the following characterizes the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA)?

A. It is a statute enacted by a state legislature.

 

B. It imposes only civil liabilities in fraud cases.

 

C. It imposes only criminal liabilities in fraud cases.

 

D. It imposes liabilities in cases concerning interstate commerce.

The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA) provides that criminal and civil liability may attach to one who transmits a program, information, code, or command knowingly, intentionally, and without authorization, if the act results in damage to a computer system used by the government or a financial institution or otherwise in interstate commerce.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Accessibility: Keyboard Navigation
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-11 Describe the major elements that must be proven in order to establish a violation of the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act.
Topic: Computer Crime
 

 

Essay Questions

65. Police detective Brenda Judd had a hunch that Beats, Inc., a retail seller of stereo equipment and related supplies, was involved in a drug-smuggling operation. In order to acquire evidence confirming her hunch, Judd posed as an ordinary consumer when she entered the Beats store. She slipped out of the “public” part of the store and proceeded down a hall to an office whose closed door was marked “Private. No Entry without Authorization from Manager.” She entered the office which was unoccupied, looked through files, and located documentary evidence indicating that Beats was indeed involved in an illegal operation. The evidence obtained by Judd furnished the primary basis for drug-smuggling and drug-dealing charges that are now pending against Beats. Beats has filed a pretrial motion asking the court to suppress the evidence obtained by Judd in her search of the office. Should the evidence be suppressed? Why or why not?

The evidence obtained by Judd in her search of the office should be suppressed because the search violated the Fourth Amendment. The warrantless search was unreasonable and unconsented. Beats, Inc., had a reasonable expectation of privacy with regard to the office, in view of its location (away from the “public” part of the store) and the sign on the door. Store management’s consent to customers’ entry of the open-to-the-public portion of the business premises does not translate into consent to a law enforcement officer’s search of a private office controlled by store management.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-06 Describe the basic protections afforded by the Fourth; Fifth; and Sixth Amendments.
Learning Objective: 05-07 Describe major exceptions to the Fourth Amendment’s usual preference that the government have a warrant before conducting a search.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

66. Since the exclusionary rule has often resulted in suppression of convincing evidence of crime, it has generated controversy. How has the Supreme Court dealt with this?

During the last 30 years, the Supreme Court has responded to the criticism by rendering decisions that restrict the operation of the exclusionary rule. The Court has held that illegally obtained evidence may be introduced at trial if the prosecution convinces the trial judge that the evidence would inevitably have been obtained anyway by lawful means. The Court has also created a “good faith” exception to the exclusionary rule. This exception allows the use of evidence seized by police officers who acted pursuant to a search warrant later held invalid if the officers reasonably believed that the warrant was valid.

 

AACSB: Analytical Thinking
AACSB: Ethics
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-08 Explain what the exclusionary rule is.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

67. Nigel is the sole proprietor of a construction contracting business. As part of an investigation into bid-rigging allegations, a grand jury issued a subpoena directing Nigel to turn over various records relating to his sole proprietorship. Nigel had voluntarily prepared the subpoenaed records. The government had long known that these records probably existed, but of course did not know of their contents. Nigel resisted the subpoena on Fifth Amendment grounds, arguing that being forced to comply would violate his privilege against self-incrimination. Should Nigel be required to comply with the subpoena? Why or why not?

Nigel must comply with the subpoena. In United States v. Doe, the Supreme Court held that the privilege against self-incrimination does not protect the contents of a sole proprietor’s business records, which can be subpoenaed and used against him so long as they were voluntarily prepared. The Court also recognized in Doe that Fifth Amendment rights may be implicated if the act of producing such records would involve incriminating testimonial admissions. In this case, however, the act of producing the records would not appear to be sufficiently testimonial to be protected by the Fifth Amendment. The government had long known of the existence of the records. Therefore, Nigel’s being forced to provide them to the government would not be a testimonial act, unlike a situation in which the act of production would reveal the existence of records previously unknown to the government and thus would seem to demonstrate the record possessor’s access to the records and possible knowledge of their incriminating contents.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-06 Describe the basic protections afforded by the Fourth; Fifth; and Sixth Amendments.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

68. Sal Conelli is the president and sole stockholder of Salco, Inc., a corporation engaged in the wholesale food supply business. Conelli has custody of Salco’s business records. A grand jury investigating possible criminal violations of health codes applicable to food products has served a subpoena demanding that certain Salco business records be made available. Conelli plans to resist the subpoena by arguing that compelling the production of the records would violate both his and Salco’s Fifth Amendment privileges against self-incrimination. Should Conelli succeed with this argument? Explain your reasoning.

Conelli should not succeed with this argument. Salco, Inc. is a corporation. It therefore does not have a Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination. Conelli has no Fifth Amendment privilege to assert on these facts either. Because Salco has no privilege to prevent disclosure of the records, Conelli, as custodian of Salco records, cannot assert any personal privilege to prevent their disclosure even if the contents of the records would incriminate him personally.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-09 List the components of the Miranda warnings and state when law enforcement officers must give those warnings.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

69. Leviathan Corp. has filed a civil Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO) lawsuit against NBS Bros., an accounting firm. NBS has asked the court to dismiss the case for two reasons: first, Leviathan did not allege, and cannot prove, that NBS is connected in any way with organized crime, as that term is customarily used; and second, Leviathan did not allege, and cannot prove, that NBS was criminally convicted of a predicate offense. Should NBS succeed with these arguments? Explain your reasoning.

NBS should not succeed with these arguments. Despite the reference to “Racketeer Influenced” in RICO’s title, the Supreme Court has concluded that the broad language of the statute is not restricted in application to settings involving mobsters and organized crime in the usual sense. As for NBS’s second argument, it too fails because the Supreme Court has held that the plaintiff in a civil RICO case is not required to prove that the defendant had been criminally convicted of a predicate offense. In 1995, Congress created an exception to this general rule by enacting a statute that required proof of a criminal conviction if the predicate offense was conduct that would have been actionable as securities fraud. Nothing in the facts of the question indicates that the conduct complained about in Leviathan’s lawsuit would have been securities fraud.

 

AACSB: Ethics
AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-10 Identify the elements that the government must prove in a criminal RICO case and that a private plaintiff must prove in a civil RICO case.
Topic: Important White-Collar Crimes
 

 

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