Fundamentals of Abnormal Psychology 8th Edition By Comer - Test Bank

Fundamentals of Abnormal Psychology 8th Edition By Comer – Test Bank

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Sample Questions Are Posted Below

1.	The portion of the nervous system that is responsible for changes in response to fear and arousal is the _____.

2.	A biological explanation for the stress disorders involves the activity of the neurotransmitter/hormone _____.

3.	Reactions to trauma that happen almost immediately and gradually disappear in a month or so are likely to be diagnosed as _____.

4.	Reliving an event that happened months ago, avoidance of things associated with that event, and a generally reduced responsiveness, are symptoms of _____.

5.	The mayor of Lockerbie, Scotland, still wakes up in a cold sweat thinking about a burning jetliner crashing into his town, although it happened decades ago. This may be an example of a(n) _____.

6.	Clinicians eventually have come to realize that many soldiers experience serious psychological symptoms long after combat is over. The modern name for the disorder that can follow combat is called _____.

7.	Forced sexual intercourse is called _____.

8.	The aspect of the response to or recovery from posttraumatic stress disorder or acute stress disorder that involves friends and family is _____.

9.	The “rap group” was invented to treat the psychological disorder called _____.

10.	A local psychologist accompanies APA and Red Cross personnel to help firefighters deal with the stress they experience shortly after a disastrous fire. The psychologist is providing _____.

11.	Our _____ is our sense of who we are, and where we fit in our environment.

12.	One’s identity is based in part on their _____, which links the past, the present, and the future.

13.	An individual with _____ displays two or more distinct personalities and periodically switches from one to another.

14.	Dissociative amnesia characterized by the loss of memory of events that occurred within a limited period following a traumatic episode is called _____ amnesia.

15.	Dissociative amnesia characterized by forgetting, for a short time, some but not all events following a traumatic episode is called _____.

16.	Dissociative amnesia characterized by forgetting, for a limited period of time, some but not all events both preceding and following a traumatic episode is called _____ amnesia.

17.	In dissociative amnesia, the forgotten period is called the _____.

18.	Dissociative amnesia characterized by forgetting that extends beyond the time following a traumatic episode is called _____ amnesia.

19.

Quinn has forgotten who he is. He has fled to a different location from the one in which he has been living and is wandering around aimlessly. After a few hours, he “comes to” and discovers his strange surroundings. Unable to recall how he got there or what he has been doing, Quinn appears to be suffering from an extreme form of dissociative amnesia called a(n) _____.

20.	Calvin suffers from dissociative identity disorder. He has three distinct identities: young Hank, Hermione, and middle-aged Cal. Hank knows about Hermione and Cal, but they do not know of the existence of each other or of Hank. This relationship is known as _____ amnesic.

21.	Stress has two components: the _____ and the _____.

22.	The _____ is the network of glands located throughout the entire body.

23.	Forty-one percent of _____ feel stressed by employment issues, compared with 31 percent of the entire American population.

24.	The top stressor in the United States is _____.

25.	_____ was known as multiple personality disorder in earlier editions of the DSM.

Answer Key

1.	autonomic nervous system
2.	norepinephrine
3.	acute stress disorder
4.	posttraumatic stress disorder
5.	posttraumatic stress disorder
6.	posttraumatic stress disorder
7.	rape
8.	social support
9.	combat fatigue, or posttraumatic stress disorder (Instructors may wish to give credit for other terms that have been historically used to refer to the same condition)
10.	psychological debriefing, or critical incident stress debriefing
11.	identity
12.	memory
13.	dissociative identity disorder (Instructors should decide individually whether or not they will accept “split personality” or “multiple personality disorder” as correct answers)
14.	localized
15.	selective
16.	generalized
17.	amnestic episode
18.	continuous
19.	dissociative fugue
20.	one-way
21.	stressor; stress response
22.	endocrine system
23.	Hispanic Americans
24.	job pressure
25.	Dissociative identity disorder

1.	Explain how the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system interpret and respond to arousal, fear, and danger.

2.	Describe the similarities and the differences between acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder.

3.	Imagine that a friend of yours has been a victim of a rape. What are the short-term and long-term courses of her stress response to being raped likely to be?

4.	Describe three different treatments that have been effective in treating combat veterans experiencing stress disorders. Be specific about what happens during these treatments.

5.	Compare and contrast dissociative amnesia and dissociative fugue.

6.	Describe and provide examples of the three ways in which alternate personalities might interact in someone experiencing dissociative identity disorder.

7.	Describe in detail how treatment for dissociative identity disorder might differ from treatment for dissociative amnesia or for dissociative fugue.

8.	Describe the characteristics of depersonalization-derealization disorder.

9.	What are the criteria to be diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) based on the DSM-5?

10.	Explain how experiencing a natural or accidental disaster could result in PTSD?

11.	Explain how personality is related to the development of stress disorders.

12.	Outline the criteria for the diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder.

13.	Outline the behavioral view for the development of dissociative amnesia and dissociative identity disorder.

Answer Key

1.	The autonomic nervous system (ANS) and the endocrine system work together as a response to danger, fear, and arousal. When a person first encounters danger, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, which increases heart rate and causes other physiological changes in the body. The ANS stimulates the adrenal glands, and the chemicals epinephrine and norepinephrine (adrenaline and noradrenaline) are released. When the danger passes, the ANS activates the parasympathetic nervous system, which then works to return the body to its original state. The ANS and the endocrine system can also activate the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) pathway, which activates the fight-or-flight response.
2.	Acute stress disorder is a disorder in which a person experiences fear and related symptoms soon after a traumatic event and for less than a month. Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a disorder in which a person continues to experience fear and related symptoms long after a traumatic event. The symptoms of both disorders are the same; the primary difference is in the duration of or timing of onset of the symptoms.
3.	Within the first week after a sexual assault, the victim may experience enormous distress. The stress can then rise over the next three weeks and peak about one month after the assault. After that, the stress may gradually improve. Many may qualify for a diagnosis of acute stress disorder during this time. For some rape victims, the stress lasts for 18 months or longer. These victims can have extremely high levels of anxiety, depression, suspiciousness, self-esteem problems, self-blame, sleep problems, and sexual problems, as well as flashbacks.
4.	The most common forms of therapy that are used to treat combat veterans include drug therapy, behavioral exposure techniques, and family therapy. (1) With drug therapy, antianxiety medications can help ease the tension that many veterans experience. They can also help with nightmares, panic attacks, flashbacks, and feelings of depression. (2) Behavioral exposure techniques can also help reduce symptoms and improve overall adjustment. The most common form of behavioral exposure used is eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR). With this therapy, clients move their eyes in a rhythmic manner from side to side while flooding their minds with images of the objects and situations they ordinarily try to avoid. (3) Family therapy is also useful, as a client’s family may be directly affected by his or her PTSD. With the help and support of family members, the client may come to examine his or her impact on others, learn to communicate better, and improve problem-solving skills.
5.	Dissociative amnesia is a disorder marked by an inability to recall important personal events and information. Dissociative fugue is an extreme form of dissociative amnesia in which a person travels to a new location and may assume a new identity, simultaneously forgetting his or her past.
6.	There are three kinds of relationships that subpersonalities can have with each other. In a mutually amnesic relationship the subpersonalities have no awareness of each other. In the mutually cognizant relationship, each subpersonality is aware of all of the others. And in the one-way amnesic relationship some of the subpersonalities are aware of the others but others are not aware. Those that are aware are often called quiet observers because they watch what the other subpersonalities are doing but do not interact with them.
7.	The most common treatments for dissociative amnesia include psychodynamic therapy, hypnotic therapy, and drug therapy. Psychodynamic therapists try to guide the patient to search his or her unconscious for forgotten experiences to bring back to consciousness. In hypnotic therapy, therapists hypnotize patients and then guide them to their forgotten memories. Sometimes injections of barbiturates have been used to help patients regain their lost memories. Therapists usually try to help clients who have dissociative identity disorder (1) recognize fully the nature of their disorder, (2) recover the gaps in their memory, and (3) integrate their subpersonalities into one functional personality. First, the therapist must bond with the primary personality as well as each subpersonality. To help patients recover forgotten memories, therapists generally use the same strategies that are used for those with dissociative amnesia. However, these techniques work much slower with clients with dissociative identity disorder. The final goal of the therapy is to merge the various subpersonalities into one identity. To do this therapists may use psychodynamic therapy as well as supportive, cognitive, and drug therapies. After the subpersonalities are merged into one, additional therapy is usually needed to maintain the single identity.
8.	Depersonalization-derealization disorder is a dissociative disorder that is marked by the presence of persistent and recurrent episodes of depersonalization (the sense that one’s own mental functioning or body are unreal or detached) and derealization (the sense that one’s surroundings are unreal or detached), or both.
9.	There are six criteria that need to be met that would warrant a diagnosis of PTSD based on DSM-5 criteria. These include: (1) The person is exposed to a traumatic event. (2) The person experiences one intrusive symptom (distressing memories, trauma-linked dreams, flashbacks, upset when exposed to cues linked to the traumatic experience, physical reactions when reminded of the traumatic experience). (3) The person avoids trauma-linked stimuli. (4) The person has negative changes to moods and cognitions that are related to the traumatic experience. (5) The person demonstrates changes in arousal and reactivity. (6) The person experiences distress or impairment for at least one month.
10.	Both acute and posttraumatic stress disorders may occur after experiencing a disaster, whether natural or accidental. Natural disasters may include earthquakes, floods, or tornadoes. Accidental disasters include car accidents, fires, as well as airplane crashes. It is known that the development of stress disorders occurred in those who experienced Hurricane Katrina as well as the BP Gulf Coast oil spill. Also, between 15 and 40% of those involved in a car accident develop PTSD within one year of the accident. It has been suggested that civilians are 10 times more likely than veterans to develop stress disorders.
11.	There are certain personality traits that are more prone to the development of stress disorders. These include being anxious or experiencing anxiety frequently, viewing negative life events as out of your control, and having the tendency to only derive negative experiences from unpleasant situations.
12.	There are four criteria that need to be met to lead to a diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder. These are: (1) The person experiences a disruption in their identity. This takes the form of at least two different personality states or experiences of possession. (2) The person experiences memory gaps beyond ordinary forgetting. (3) The person experiences significant impairment or distress. (4) The symptoms are not caused by substance use or a medical condition.
13.	Behavioral theorists hold the view that dissociation comes from normal memory processes. These include forgetting and drifting of the mind. They also hold that dissociation is learned through operant conditioning. Behaviorists also see dissociation as an escape behavior, similar to psychodynamic theorists. However, they hold that it is reinforcement that keeps the person engaging in dissociation as a means of escape.

1.	Poor health is BEST described as a:
	A)	stress.
	B)	stressor.
	C)	stress response.
	D)	stress model.

2.	A person who copes well with a happy event in life is showing a positive:
	A)	stress.
	B)	stressor.
	C)	stress response.
	D)	stress model.

3.	Having to walk the dog several times a day when it is raining is an example of a:
	A)	stressor.
	B)	stress response.
	C)	stress disorder.
	D)	psychophysical disorder.

4.	Looking for rainbows while walking the dog in the rain is an example of a:
	A)	stressor.
	B)	stress response.
	C)	social support system.
	D)	potential stressor.

5.	The statement, “This is awful, but I guess I can deal with it like I do everything else,” represents one person’s:
	A)	stress.
	B)	stressor.
	C)	stress response.
	D)	somatization.

6.	In the face of fear, a person is unable to concentrate and develops a distorted view of the world. This person is showing which fear response?
	A)	physical
	B)	emotional
	C)	cognitive
	D)	psychological

7.	A student who dreads being called on in class, and in fact panics at the thought of public speaking, is experiencing a(n) _____ response to stress.
	A)	physical
	B)	cognitive
	C)	emotional
	D)	developmental

8.	A student who turns pale and feels nauseated when called on to speak in class is experiencing a(n) _____ response to stress.
	A)	emotional
	B)	cognitive
	C)	developmental
	D)	physical

9.	What do acute and posttraumatic stress disorder have in common with dissociative disorders?
	A)	They are disorders of the twentieth century; that is, they were not diagnosed before 1900.
	B)	They are most successfully treated with the same sort of medication—antipsychotics.
	C)	They are triggered by traumatic events.
	D)	They are varieties of depression.

10.	The part of the body that releases hormones into the bloodstream is the _____ system.
	A)	nervous
	B)	exocrine
	C)	endocrine
	D)	autonomic

11.	In response to a threat, we perspire, breathe more quickly, get goose bumps, and feel nauseated. These responses are controlled by the ______ nervous system.
	A)	somatic
	B)	peripheral
	C)	sympathetic
	D)	parasympathetic

12.	If a deer jumps in front of your car while you are driving, which part of the stress response is active?
	A)	parasympathetic nervous system
	B)	cortisol system
	C)	conservation system
	D)	sympathetic nervous system

13.	The organ that produces a hormone that is involved in the reaction to fearful and stressful situations is the:
	A)	ganglion.
	B)	adrenal gland.
	C)	hippocampus.
	D)	medulla.

14.	Imagine that you just had a “close call” while driving, but now you feel your body returning to normal. Which part of your nervous system is controlling this return to normalcy?
	A)	somatic nervous system
	B)	peripheral nervous system
	C)	sympathetic nervous system
	D)	parasympathetic nervous system

15.	The group of hormones that appear to be MOST involved in arousal and the fear reaction are the:
	A)	prolactins.
	B)	corticosteroids.
	C)	adrenalaltoids.
	D)	beta-blockers.

16.	Which statement accurately describes the sympathetic nervous system pathway of the stress response?
	A)	The hypothalamus excites the sympathetic nervous system, which then excites body organs to release hormones that serve as neurotransmitters, causing even more arousal.
	B)	The parasympathetic nervous system excites the sympathetic nervous system, which then excites body organs to release hormones that serve as neurotransmitters, producing even more arousal.
	C)	The hypothalamus excites the parasympathetic nervous system, which then excites body organs to release hormones that serve as neurotransmitters, causing even more arousal.
	D)	The hypothalamus inhibits the sympathetic nervous system, which then inhibits body organs to release hormones that serve as neurotransmitters, causing a reduction in arousal.

17.	Which statement accurately describes the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal pathway of the stress response?
	A)	The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes the adrenal gland to release corticosteroids.
	B)	The hypothalamus produces corticosteroids, which stimulate the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes the adrenal gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone.
	C)	The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce corticosteroids that cause the adrenal gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone.
	D)	The hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary to produce a stress hormone that causes the adrenal gland to release hypothalamic hormone in a feedback loop.

18.	A teammate of a basketball player says, “Congratulations on making those game-winning free throws. Weren’t you bothered by the fans waving their arms behind the basket?” The basketball player replies, “Thanks. I felt a little nervous, but to tell the truth, I didn’t even notice the fans.” MOST likely, the player who made the foul shots has:
	A)	high state and trait anxiety.
	B)	low trait anxiety, but high state anxiety.
	C)	high trait anxiety, but low state anxiety.
	D)	low state and trait anxiety.

19.	I am generally a calm, relaxed person. If you are generally a tense, excitable person, we differ in ______ anxiety.
	A)	trait
	B)	state
	C)	situation
	D)	content

20.	Some people are stimulated by exciting, potentially dangerous activities that terrify others. These varying reactions represent differences in ______ anxiety.
	A)	trait
	B)	state
	C)	neurotic
	D)	existential

21.	A person who witnessed a horrible accident and then became unusually anxious and depressed for three weeks is probably experiencing:
	A)	posttraumatic stress disorder.
	B)	pretraumatic stress disorder.
	C)	combat fatigue.
	D)	acute stress disorder.

22.	Posttraumatic stress disorder:
	A)	begins immediately after the stress occurs.
	B)	lasts between one and three weeks.
	C)	doesn’t begin until years after the traumatic event.
	D)	lasts longer than a month.

23.	A pattern of anxiety, insomnia, depression, and flashbacks that begins shortly after a horrible event and persists for less than a month is called:
	A)	hysteria.
	B)	acute stress disorder.
	C)	generalized anxiety disorder.
	D)	posttraumatic stress disorder.

24.	One distinction that DSM-5 makes between acute stress disorder and posttraumatic stress disorder is based on:
	A)	how intense the anxiety-linked symptoms are.
	B)	what the cause of the anxiety-linked symptoms was.
	C)	how long the anxiety symptoms last.
	D)	what sort of treatment is contemplated for the anxiety-linked symptoms.

25.	A pattern of anxiety, insomnia, depression, and flashbacks that persists for years after a horrible event is called:
	A)	hysteria.
	B)	acute stress disorder.
	C)	generalized anxiety disorder.
	D)	posttraumatic stress disorder.

26.	Which of the following is typical of posttraumatic stress disorder?
	A)	increased arousal, negative emotions, and guilt
	B)	inability to remember the event that led to the stress
	C)	increased responsiveness and emotion right after the event
	D)	a tendency to want to go back to see the site of the stress

27.	Which is the BEST example of “reduced responsiveness” as it relates to posttraumatic stress disorder?
	A)	feeling detached or estranged from others and loss of interest in activities
	B)	feelings of extreme guilt for surviving the traumatic event
	C)	reliving the event through daydreams and night dreams
	D)	excessive talking about the event in inappropriate settings

28.	Which does NOT characterize stress disorders?
	A)	recurring memories, dreams, or nightmares about the event
	B)	a compulsive need to engage in activities that remind one of the event
	C)	reduced responsiveness to the world around one
	D)	signs of increased arousal, such as poor sleep and exaggerated startle reactions

29.	A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who is upset by what she or he had to do to survive and perhaps even feels unworthy of surviving is:
	A)	reexperiencing the traumatic event.
	B)	experiencing avoidance.
	C)	experiencing reduced responsiveness.
	D)	experiencing increased anger, anxiety, and guilt.

30.	A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who is having “flashbacks” is:
	A)	reexperiencing the traumatic event.
	B)	experiencing avoidance.
	C)	experiencing reduced responsiveness.
	D)	experiencing increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt.

31.	A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who refuses to talk about the trauma they experienced is:
	A)	reexperiencing the traumatic event.
	B)	demonstrating avoidance.
	C)	demonstrating reduced responsiveness.
	D)	demonstrating increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt.

32.	A person with posttraumatic stress disorder who has symptoms of derealization is:
	A)	reexperiencing the traumatic event.
	B)	experiencing avoidance.
	C)	experiencing reduced responsiveness.
	D)	experiencing increased arousal, anxiety, and guilt.

33.	Women are _____ as likely as men to develop stress disorders.
	A)	equally
	B)	at least twice
	C)	three times
	D)	four times

34.	People with low incomes are _____ as likely as people with higher incomes to experience one of the stress disorders.
	A)	just
	B)	twice
	C)	three times
	D)	four times

35.	When was acute stress disorder as a result of combat (called “shell shock”) first recognized?
	A)	during World War I
	B)	after World War II
	C)	during the Vietnam War
	D)	during the Iraqi War

36.	Those who are MOST likely to experience a psychological stress disorder are:
	A)	female, or low-income individuals.
	B)	male, or low-income individuals.
	C)	female, or high-income individuals.
	D)	male, or high-income individuals.

37.	Based on recent research, it can be concluded that the impact of repeated combat deployments:
	A)	significantly increases one’s risk of developing PTSD.
	B)	doesn’t impact troops much at all.
	C)	actually decreases the risk of a soldier experiencing PTSD.
	D)	increases PTSD risk, but only by a small amount.

38.	A friend says, “If we could just eliminate combat traumas, we could eliminate a great deal of posttraumatic stress disorder.” Your response would MOST likely be:
	A)	“Yes—in fact, combat trauma is the leading source of PTSD worldwide.”
	B)	“Yes—combat trauma produces as many cases of PTSD worldwide as civilian trauma does.”
	C)	“Yes—although civilian trauma causes many more cases of PTSD than combat trauma does.”
	D)	“Maybe—however, many researchers think that combat trauma is significantly overrated as a source of PTSD.”

39.	Which is the MOST common experience for a veteran of the wars in Iraq and Afghanistan?
	A)	seeing dead or gravely wounded civilians
	B)	seeing friends seriously wounded or killed
	C)	being injured or hospitalized themselves
	D)	being treated for a combat-related stress disorder

40.	Dorian was only 10 miles away from Mount St. Helens when it erupted with one of the largest blasts in history. There was ash and lava everywhere, and he was terrified and sure he was going to die. When rescue teams found him a week later, he was cold, hungry, and scared. More than a year later, he still had nightmares and woke up in a cold sweat. This description BEST fits a(n):
	A)	phobia.
	B)	acute stress disorder.
	C)	generalized anxiety disorder.
	D)	posttraumatic stress disorder.

41.	Salina was terrified during the San Francisco earthquake of 1989—who wouldn’t be? For a couple of weeks after, she did not sleep well or feel comfortable inside a building. However, the fears gradually diminished, disappearing within a month. Her reaction to the earthquake would MOST likely be diagnosed as a(n):
	A)	panic attack.
	B)	phobic reaction.
	C)	acute stress disorder.
	D)	posttraumatic stress disorder.

42.	Almost every night, Cara wakes up terrified and screaming for the boys to get off her. Two years later she still can’t get the night she was attacked out of her mind. The fear, anxiety, and depression are ruining her life. This is an example of a(n):
	A)	phobia.
	B)	panic reaction.
	C)	acute stress reaction.
	D)	posttraumatic stress reaction.

43.	How concerned should we be about victims of sexual assault and terror? Is there a very great risk that they will experience PTSD?
	A)	Yes, the risk is great; more than a third of sexual assault victims and about half of terror victims experience PTSD.
	B)	Yes, the risk is great; virtually everyone who experiences sexual assault or terror eventually experiences PTSD.
	C)	No, the risk isn’t great; only about 10 percent of sexual assault and terror victims experience PTSD.
	D)	No, the risk isn’t great; the number of people in these groups who experience PTSD is probably overestimated.

44.	Which statement about rape is accurate?
	A)	Most rape victims do not know their attackers.
	B)	Most rape victims are young adults.
	C)	About equal numbers of men and women are raped.
	D)	About 1 in 10 women are raped in their lifetime.

45.	Which statement about the long-term effects of rape on women is accurate?
	A)	Rape impacts a woman’s psychological well-being but not her physical well-being.
	B)	Rape impacts a woman’s psychological and physical health.
	C)	For the vast majority of women, the impact of rape does not persist beyond about four months.
	D)	The greatest stress is experienced many months after the rape rather than immediately after the rape.

46.	What proportion of women are the victims of rape at some point during their lives?
	A)	1 in 2
	B)	1 in 4
	C)	1 in 6
	D)	1 in 8

47.	What percentage of rape victims qualified for the diagnosis of acute stress disorder in Rothbaum et al.’s (1992) study?
	A)	12 percent
	B)	43 percent
	C)	76 percent
	D)	94 percent

48.	Which of the following is MOST likely to experience stress related to employment?
	A)	Stacey, a 32-year old Caucasian single mother
	B)	Juan, a Hispanic American male age 40
	C)	Sean, an African American male age 35
	D)	Monique, an African American single mother age 42

49.	Which of the following is NOT a top stressor in the United States?
	A)	job pressure
	B)	money
	C)	health
	D)	transportation

50.	A torture victim who is subjected to threats of death, mock executions, and degradation is experiencing what type of torture?
	A)	psychological
	B)	physical
	C)	deprivation
	D)	sexual

51.	Investigators have shown that traumatic events are related to abnormal activity of the neurotransmitter:
	A)	GABA.
	B)	serotonin.
	C)	epinephrine.
	D)	norepinephrine.

52.	A person’s levels of cortisol and norepinephrine are in the normal range. MOST likely, that person is experiencing:
	A)	posttraumatic stress disorder.
	B)	the fight-or-flight syndrome.
	C)	severe stress response.
	D)	no stress disorder.

53.	About 30 percent of those receiving outpatient therapy are diagnosed with an adjustment disorder. Some experts say adjustment disorders are:
	A)	overdiagnosed, because they are easy to apply to many problems and are less stigmatizing than other diagnoses.
	B)	overdiagnosed, because clinicians often fail to see that what they label adjustment disorders are in fact stress disorders.
	C)	underdiagnosed, because many clinicians suspect malingering is the problem, not an adjustment disorder.
	D)	underdiagnosed, because many clinicians are unwilling to give a diagnosis when a person might not really have a disorder.

54.	Someone you know has just been diagnosed with an adjustment disorder. You can be reasonably sure that this person’s disorder is:
	A)	actually within the range of normal functioning, so it is not really a DSM-5 disorder.
	B)	not normal, but less severe than acute distress disorder or posttraumatic stress disorder.
	C)	not normal, and more severe than acute distress disorder, but less severe than posttraumatic stress disorder.
	D)	not normal, and more severe than either acute distress disorder or posttraumatic stress disorder.

55.	What do we know about the inheritance of PTSD?
	A)	The tendency to develop PTSD cannot be passed on from one generation to the next.
	B)	The tendency to develop PTSD is a characteristics located on the Y chromosome.
	C)	Both men and women appear to be able to pass on their tendency to develop PTSD.
	D)	Women who have high cortisol levels tend to have children with high cortisol levels.

56.	Based on current research, what is the relationship between personality and stress disorders?
	A)	Certain personality characteristics are related to the development of stress disorders, but not to recovery from these disorders.
	B)	Personality characteristics are related to both the development of stress disorders and recovery from them.
	C)	Certain personality characteristics are related to recovery from stress disorders, but not to their development.
	D)	Personality characteristics are related to neither the development of nor recovery from stress disorders.

57.	Those people MOST likely to develop stress disorders are:
	A)	anxious, and think they can control negative things that happen to them.
	B)	not anxious, and think they can control negative things that happen to them.
	C)	anxious, and think they cannot control negative things that happen to them.
	D)	not anxious, and think they cannot control negative things that happen to them.

58.	The people MOST likely to develop stress disorders lived their childhood in:
	A)	well-to-do families and had parents who divorced when the people were in their teens.
	B)	well-to-do families and had parents who divorced when the people were younger than 10 years old.
	C)	poverty and had parents who divorced when the people were in their teens.
	D)	poverty and had parents who divorced when the people were younger than 10 years old.

59.	According to research, which person would probably NOT develop a stress disorder following trauma?
	A)	someone who believes that events are generally under his or her control
	B)	someone who has a poor level of psychological adjustment before the trauma
	C)	someone who is unable to find anything positive about a horrible situation
	D)	someone who could be described as not very handy

60.	After Marie’s plane crashed, her mother came to stay while Marie recovered. Her friends visited often and went to lunch and dinner with her occasionally. This situation probably contributed to Marie’s coping ability after the accident. How does this relate as a factor in her response to stress?
	A)	personality
	B)	social support
	C)	severity of the trauma
	D)	the nature of her childhood experiences

61.	Kelly was in a passenger plane that had engine trouble. She watched as all four engines quit, one at a time. Then the plane exploded and she was thrown 5,000 feet in the air. It was a miracle that she survived, although she was severely injured. She landed in a thick pine forest covered with 10 feet or more of snow. When she regained consciousness several weeks later, she had a stress reaction that lasted for years, and she could never fly again. The factor that probably MOST contributed to her extreme posttraumatic stress reaction was:
	A)	her personality.
	B)	her social support.
	C)	the severity of the trauma.
	D)	the nature of her childhood experiences.

62.	Several studies have demonstrated that Hispanic American combat veterans and police officers have higher rates of PTSD than other veterans or officers. Research into the causes of this difference have MOST often focused on possible:
	A)	genetic and neurotransmitter causes.
	B)	cultural belief system and social support factors.
	C)	prejudice within military and police forces.
	D)	early childhood differences in educational experiences.

63.	A friend says to you, “I know someone who is a combat veteran who was just diagnosed with PTSD. Do you think therapy will help this person?” Which is the BEST answer you can give based on current research?
	A)	“Probably—about two-thirds of those receiving therapy for PTSD eventually show improvement.”
	B)	“Probably—more than 90 percent of those receiving therapy for PTSD eventually show improvement.”
	C)	“Almost certainly—about 80 percent of those receiving therapy for PTSD show almost immediate improvement, and most of the rest show improvement within two years of starting therapy.”
	D)	“Yes—almost everyone receiving treatment for PTSD shows improvement within a few months.”

64.	Which would a combat veteran receiving the best treatment for a stress disorder NOT be likely to experience?
	A)	antipsychotic medication
	B)	family therapy
	C)	rap groups
	D)	exposure therapy

65.	A combat veteran undergoing “eye movement desensitization and reprocessing” is experiencing _____ therapy.
	A)	exposure
	B)	group
	C)	insight
	D)	drug

66.	“The therapist wants me to imagine scenes where I was in combat and imagine them like I was there. I don’t want to do that! How can this possibly help me?” Which is the BEST answer you can give to a combat veteran who says this?
	A)	“That really can’t help you. The best thing to do is suppress your fear, control it.”
	B)	“Your therapist is suggesting something called ‘virtual exposure,’ but no one knows if it helps.”
	C)	“Your therapist is suggesting an effective form of exposure called ‘flooding.'”
	D)	“You should try drug therapy; that usually works, even without additional therapy.”

67.	Combat veterans in a therapy group express a great deal of guilt and rage. MOST likely, the veterans are in a(n):
	A)	desensitization and reprocessing group.
	B)	rap group.
	C)	“experience writing” group.
	D)	exposure group.

68.	If someone asked you about the effectiveness of psychological debriefing following a disaster, you would be correct (based on the research) in saying that:
	A)	there have been no controlled research studies on the topic of debriefing.
	B)	there is little evidence that debriefing works.
	C)	there is strong, convincing evidence that debriefing works well.
	D)	there is evidence that debriefing works only if conducted by community members themselves.

69.	Which is an accurate statement about the effectiveness of psychological debriefing in the aftermath of a disaster (based on research studies)?
	A)	Debriefing helps both rescuers and victims.
	B)	Debriefing by victims is more effective than debriefing by professionals.
	C)	Debriefing doesn’t work too well; it might even make victims worse.
	D)	Debriefing is so ineffective that it is no longer done.

70.	A person experiencing multiple personalities would MOST accurately be diagnosed with:
	A)	schizophrenia.
	B)	dissociative disorder.
	C)	fugue.
	D)	amnesia.

71.	If you had lost your sense of identity, what would MOST likely be disrupted?
	A)	your relationships
	B)	your intellectual functioning
	C)	your attitudes toward your body
	D)	your memory

72.	Dissociative disorders:
	A)	involve major changes in memory.
	B)	usually have a precise physical cause.
	C)	are a type of anxiety disorder.
	D)	must involve the presence of multiple personalities

73.	Which diagnosis includes a breakdown in sense of self, a significant alteration in memory or identity, and even a separation of one part of the identity from another part?
	A)	mood disorder
	B)	personality disorder
	C)	dissociative disorder
	D)	histrionic personality disorder

74.	People who are unable to recall important information about themselves, especially information of an upsetting nature, are MOST likely experiencing:
	A)	depersonalization.
	B)	dissociative amnesia.
	C)	body dysmorphic disorder.
	D)	the placebo response.

75.	In the MOST common type of dissociative amnesia, a person loses memory for:
	A)	some but not all the events surrounding the trauma.
	B)	all events beginning with the trauma but within a limited period of time.
	C)	all events from the trauma onward.
	D)	all events before and after the trauma.

76.	After a major earthquake, television coverage showed survivors shuffling confusedly through the ruined buildings. If such victims later could not remember the days immediately after the earthquake, the victims would be suffering from what type of amnesia?
	A)	continuous
	B)	selective
	C)	posttraumatic
	D)	localized

77.	Shawn experiences a mugging and robbery in which his dog is kidnapped. Eventually the dog is found and returned. However, he is unable to recall events immediately following the attack, up until the safe return of the dog. This is a classic example of ______amnesia.
	A)	selective
	B)	localized
	C)	continuous
	D)	generalized

78.	Gwendolyn is held up at knifepoint and her young son is kidnapped. Eventually, her son is found and returned. However, she is unable to recall events that occurred since the attack, although she remembers some new experiences; worse still, she finds that she is forgetting events that occurred even before the attack. This is a classic example of ______ amnesia.
	A)	selective
	B)	localized
	C)	continuous
	D)	generalized

79.	Carlotta is attacked in the street and her young daughter is kidnapped. Eventually, the police find her daughter and she is returned to her mother. However, Carlotta is unable to recall events that have occurred since the attack. She is even unable to retain new information; she remembers what happened before the attack but cannot remember new and ongoing experiences. This is a classic example of ______ amnesia.
	A)	localized
	B)	selective
	C)	continuous
	D)	generalized

80.	Ever since the auto accident, during which he was miraculously unhurt, Paul has not been the same. He forgets appointments, friends’ names, and even things done in the last few days. His amnesia is termed:
	A)	continuous.
	B)	organic.
	C)	circumscribed.
	D)	selective.

81.	Which is NOT an example of memory recovery techniques used by therapists?
	A)	hypnosis
	B)	journal writing
	C)	imagining the event
	D)	dream interpretation

82.	A personality change that often accompanies dissociative fugues is that people become:
	A)	more withdrawn.
	B)	more outgoing.
	C)	more inhibited.
	D)	more histrionic in their emotional reactions.

83.	Dissociative fugues usually:
	A)	follow a stressful event.
	B)	end very gradually.
	C)	have numerous recurrences.
	D)	involve irrecoverable memory loss.

84.	Which statement BEST describes the difference between dissociative amnesia and dissociative fugue?
	A)	Those with dissociative fugue change where they live.
	B)	Those with dissociative amnesia often develop amnesia without experiencing an upsetting event.
	C)	Those with dissociative fugue experience a loss of semantic, rather than episodic knowledge.
	D)	Those with dissociative amnesia experience a loss of semantic, rather than episodic, knowledge.

85.	An individual who had suffered from dissociative fugue likely would have experienced all of the following EXCEPT:
	A)	relatively few aftereffects.
	B)	a recurrence of the problem months or years later.
	C)	a fairly sudden ending to the dissociative fugue state.
	D)	a traumatic event.

86.	One who suffers from dissociative identity disorder is MOST likely to be a:
	A)	man who was physically abused as a child.
	B)	woman who was physically abused as a child.
	C)	man who was not physically abused as a child.
	D)	woman who was not physically abused as a child.

87.	A client who is talking calmly and rationally all of a sudden begins whining and complaining like a spoiled child. If that client suffers from true dissociative identity disorder, the client just experienced:
	A)	host transfer.
	B)	mutual cognizance.
	C)	lability.
	D)	switching.

88.	A person with dissociative identity disorder has just experienced “switching.” What MOST likely has happened?
	A)	The host personality has put in a relatively rare appearance.
	B)	The person has faked a change in personality.
	C)	Two subpersonalities rapidly changed back and forth several times.
	D)	The person has changed from one personality to another.

89.	Alexis has dissociative identity disorder. When one of her personalities, Jodi, is asked about another one, Tom, she claims ignorance. Tom has never heard of Jodi either. This would be called a:
	A)	coconscious relationship.
	B)	mutually cognizant pattern.
	C)	one-way amnesic relationship.
	D)	mutually amnesic relationship.

90.	When all of the subpersonalities in a person with dissociative identity disorder are aware of one another, it is termed a:
	A)	coconscious relationship.
	B)	mutually cognizant pattern.
	C)	one-way amnesic relationship.
	D)	mutually amnesic relationship.

91.	Raymond has dissociative identity disorder. All of his subpersonalities talk about and tattle on each other. This is called a:
	A)	coconscious relationship.
	B)	mutually cognizant pattern.
	C)	one-way amnesic relationship.
	D)	mutually amnesic relationship.

92.	In a case of dissociative identity disorder, Pat is aware of the existence of Jerry and Chris, but Jerry and Chris are not aware of the existence of the other personalities. This form of subpersonality relationship is called:
	A)	one-way amnesic.
	B)	mutually cognizant.
	C)	mutually amnesic.
	D)	coconscious.

93.	Juanita has dissociative identity disorder. Big Tony and Smart Alice are two personalities who are aware of all of the others. None of her other personalities are aware of each other. This would be called a:
	A)	coconscious relationship.
	B)	mutually cognizant pattern.
	C)	one-way amnesic relationship.
	D)	mutually amnesic relationship.

94.	Jason has dissociative identity disorder. Fat Freddy and Carmen are two personalities who are aware of all of the others but do not interact with them. Fat Freddy and Carmen would be described as:
	A)	self-reliant.
	B)	co-occurring.
	C)	coconscious.
	D)	mutually cognizant.

95.	Modern studies suggest that the average number of subpersonalities in cases of dissociative identity disorder in women is about:
	A)	8, and is lower for men.
	B)	8, and is higher for men.
	C)	15, and is lower for men.
	D)	15, and is higher for men.

96.	An individual who formerly knew how to speak a foreign language and play a musical instrument can no longer remember how to as a result of a dissociative disorder. The dissociative disorder MOST likely is:
	A)	dissociative fugue.
	B)	dissociative amnesia.
	C)	dissociative identity.
	D)	Such memories are affected about equally by the dissociative disorders.

97.	Research on evoked potential with people with dissociative identity disorder has revealed that:
	A)	different subpersonalities have shown different brain response patterns.
	B)	people with dissociative identity disorder did not show different brain response patterns for subpersonalities.
	C)	no differences were found in brain activity between controls and individuals with dissociative identity disorder.
	D)	control subjects who were asked to pretend they had different personalities were able to create different brain response patterns for each subpersonality.

98.	_____ people feel they are living with extreme stress.
	A)	33%
	B)	48%
	C)	52%
	D)	54%

99.	How do results from evoked potential studies support the idea of the existence of multiple personalities?
	A)	Evoked potentials can be elicited iatrogenically by therapists.
	B)	Different subpersonalities have been found to show different brain wave patterns.
	C)	Nonpatients are able to fake results just like those diagnosed with multiple personalities.
	D)	Only those with traumatic backgrounds produce evoked potentials.

100.	In the United States, the number of diagnosed cases per year of dissociative identity disorder:
	A)	has increased.
	B)	has decreased.
	C)	first increased, then decreased.
	D)	first decreased, then increased.

101.	How many people lie awake at night due to stress?
	A)	33%
	B)	48%
	C)	52%
	D)	54%

102.	Psychodynamic theorists believe that dissociative amnesias and fugues result from:
	A)	projection.
	B)	regression.
	C)	repression.
	D)	sublimation.

103.	Which statement provides the most persuasive argument against a psychodynamic explanation for dissociative identity disorder?
	A)	Hardly any case studies support a psychodynamic explanation.
	B)	Repression cannot be used to explain the disorder.
	C)	Some abused children don’t develop the disorder.
	D)	Psychodynamic therapists do not even attempt to treat the disorder.

104.	“An abused child’s thoughts occasionally drift to other, less anxiety-arousing, topics; this anxiety reduction thus serves to strengthen ‘other’ thoughts, while weakening the thoughts about abuse.” A psychologist with which theoretical background would be most likely to offer this quotation as an explanation for the development of dissociative disorders?
	A)	psychodynamic
	B)	biological
	C)	behavioral
	D)	sociocultural

105.	In addition to failing to explain why some people who experience severe trauma do not develop dissociative disorders, behavioral theorists also have the MOST difficulty explaining how:
	A)	reinforcement is related to the onset of the disorder.
	B)	temporary escape from painful memories grows into a complex disorder.
	C)	therapists could iatrogenically cause the disorder.
	D)	operant conditioning is related to the disorder.

106.	Which hypothesis used to explain dissociative disorders is shared by psychodynamic and behavioral theorists?
	A)	They serve to help someone escape something unpleasant.
	B)	The attempts at forgetting are purposeful from the beginning.
	C)	The process involved in forgetting is supported by subtle reinforcement.
	D)	The individuals themselves are aware that their disorder is protecting them from facing a painful reality.

107.	The chief sources of data used to support the theories of psychodynamic and behavioral clinicians are:
	A)	large-scale experimental studies.
	B)	biologically based.
	C)	case histories.
	D)	epidemiological.

108.	Kevin studies his history notes and textbook while he is drinking beer. According to some theorists, Kevin would later do better on his history exam if he also had alcohol in his system while taking the exam. These theorists would be basing their claim on:
	A)	social learning theory.
	B)	state-dependent learning.
	C)	active-avoidance learning.
	D)	associative memory learning.

109.	If you studied for this exam while you were unusually happy, you will probably do best taking it while you are:
	A)	unusually sad.
	B)	unusually happy.
	C)	moderately happy.
	D)	happy when you know the answers and sad when you don’t.

110.	Just after doing well in an intramural basketball game—something which left me very happy, and in a high state of excitement—I sat down and studied for my abnormal psychology test. Research shows I would perform best on that test if, at the time of the test, I was:
	A)	happy and excited.
	B)	happy but calm.
	C)	neither happy nor sad, and excited.
	D)	neither happy nor sad, and calm.

111.	Laurent has three subpersonalities. Jackie emerges when Laurent is in an awkward social situation, Grace surfaces during sporting events, and Carlos appears when Laurent is angry. The therapist believes that the mood and conditions under which each subpersonality appears are critical to understanding this disorder, demonstrating a belief in:
	A)	avoidant dysmorphia.
	B)	state-dependent learning.
	C)	convergent variable learning.
	D)	neurobiological concordance.

112.	If the state-dependent learning explanation of dissociative disorders is correct, a person may not remember stressful events because he or she is:
	A)	simply too stressed at the time for memories to be laid down.
	B)	at a different arousal level after the stress is over.
	C)	a smoker.
	D)	one who habitually drinks too much.

113.	Which has been proposed as a possible cause of dissociative disorders?
	A)	regression
	B)	self-hypnosis
	C)	lack of repression
	D)	classical conditioning

114.	What characteristic is MOST common to both self-hypnosis and dissociative identity disorder?
	A)	the inability to forget
	B)	the awareness that something has been forgotten
	C)	the ability to escape threatening events
	D)	the awareness to know why you forget

115.	What conclusion does research on hypnosis and hypnotic amnesia support?
	A)	People with multiple personalities may be faking their condition.
	B)	Dissociative disorders are extremely odd and inexplicable events.
	C)	Dissociative disorders are similar to behaviors seen in hypnotic amnesia.
	D)	Self-hypnosis relies on different processes and produces different behavioral outcomes.

116.	A child in an extremely abusive family situation often seems to become deaf to the verbal abuse, and insensitive to the physical abuse, as if the child simply wasn’t there experiencing the abuse. One explanation of this behavior is:
	A)	self-hypnosis.
	B)	state-dependent memory.
	C)	eidetic imagery.
	D)	memory while under simulated anesthesia.

117.	I was running down a familiar country lane when all of a sudden nothing looked familiar. It took me several seconds to realize where I was, and I continued my run without incident. What I experienced was:
	A)	the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.
	B)	jamais vu.
	C)	déjà vu.
	D)	absentmindedness.

118.	A strong “feeling of knowing” is associated with:
	A)	déjà vu.
	B)	jamais vu.
	C)	pseudopresentiment.
	D)	the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.

119.	A visual image that is retained so vividly that one can continue to scan it for more information is called:
	A)	déjà vu.
	B)	jamais vu.
	C)	an eidetic image.
	D)	the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon.

120.	Individuals experiencing dissociative amnesia sometimes are given sodium amobarbital or sodium pentobarbital because those drugs:
	A)	calm people and reduce their inhibitions.
	B)	act as truth serum, so people can’t fake their illness.
	C)	help reduce associated symptoms of depression.
	D)	make people forget extremely upsetting events in their lives.

121.	A person diagnosed with a dissociative disorder has recovered almost completely, even though the person had not received any therapy. That person was LEAST likely to have been diagnosed with:
	A)	dissociative identity disorder.
	B)	malingering.
	C)	dissociative amnesia.
	D)	dissociative fugue.

122.	People with which dissociative disorder typically do not tend to eventually recover without receiving treatment?
	A)	dissociative identity disorder
	B)	dissociative fugue
	C)	dissociative amnesia
	D)	depersonalization-derealization disorder

123.	What effect has the use of sodium amobarbital had in treating dissociative amnesia and fugue?
	A)	Most clients recall past events easily with drugs.
	B)	Recall is often limited to the session itself.
	C)	The patient’s recollection doesn’t begin until long after the session.
	D)	Results are mixed, successful with some patients and not with others.

124.	In the treatment of dissociative amnesia, sodium amobarbital and sodium pentobarbital work by:
	A)	freeing people from their inhibitions, thus allowing them to recall unpleasant events.
	B)	“forcing” people to tell the truth.
	C)	inducing a hypnotic state.
	D)	alleviating depression.

125.	The first step in treating people with dissociative identity disorder is to:
	A)	bond with the primary personality.
	B)	integrate the subpersonalities into a unity.
	C)	establish a contract with the subpersonalities to prevent self-harm.
	D)	provide a forum for the subpersonalities to communicate with one another.

126.	The usual goal of therapy for dissociative identity disorders is to:
	A)	have the subpersonalities develop equal “shares” of the person’s functioning.
	B)	have the “other” subpersonalities become subject to the subpersonality that has the “protector” role.
	C)	gradually phase out all but one of the subpersonalities.
	D)	merge the subpersonalities into a single identity.

127.	One of the subpersonalities of a person receiving treatment for dissociative identity disorder has just become a “protector.” How far along in therapy has the person probably progressed?
	A)	not far at all because protectors usually emerge even before the disorder is diagnosed
	B)	moderately far because a protector usually emerges before subpersonality integration
	C)	very far because a protector usually emerges after subpersonality integration, and before fusion
	D)	all the way because a protector usually emerges only after successful therapy is over

128.	A client receiving treatment for identity disorder is progressing well through therapy; then, fusion occurs. MOST likely, the client has:
	A)	experienced a significant, but short-term, setback.
	B)	experienced a significant, and long-term, setback.
	C)	merged the first two or more subpersonalities.
	D)	merged the final two or more subpersonalities.

129.	At a workshop about dissociative identity disorder, a therapist says, “In my experience, once integration begins, the need for therapy is practically over, and later dissociations just don’t happen.” This therapist’s experience is:
	A)	typical.
	B)	a bit unusual; most successful therapies cease before integration.
	C)	a bit unusual; most successful therapies cease after integration.
	D)	very unusual; most successful therapies last well beyond the beginning of integration.

130.	The effects of taking hallucinogens accompanied by feelings that objects are changing size, that other people are distorted, and that one might be mechanical is MOST similar to:
	A)	depersonalization.
	B)	multiple personalities.
	C)	amnestic fugue.
	D)	body dysmorphic disorder.

131.	An individual has been diagnosed with a dissociative disorder. However, the individual has very good recall of previous life events and has a strong sense of self. The MOST likely diagnosis for this individual is:
	A)	dissociative amnesia.
	B)	multiple identity disorder.
	C)	dissociative fugue.
	D)	depersonalization disorder.

132.	A feeling of detachment from oneself could be diagnosed as PTSD or depersonalization disorder. How would one decide which diagnosis is BEST?
	A)	by considering how long it had been going on
	B)	by considering which symptoms predominated
	C)	by considering the type of stress the person had endured
	D)	by considering which form of treatment worked best

133.	Depersonalization _____, while derealization _____.
	A)	is an anxiety disorder; is a thought disorder
	B)	is induced by street drugs; is naturally occurring
	C)	refers to oneself; refers to the external world
	D)	involves multiple personalities; involves only one personality

134.	Which statement is MOST accurate about depersonalization disorder?
	A)	Depersonalization disorder usually comes on suddenly and may be triggered by extreme fatigue, intense stress, or pain.
	B)	Most cases of depersonalization disorder are associated with changes in brain activity.
	C)	The presence of severe stressors in one’s life is not a predictor of depersonalization disorder.
	D)	Depersonalization disorder rarely occurs transiently.

135.	Someone who is experiencing “doubling” is:
	A)	showing two out of several multiple personalities at the same time.
	B)	transitioning from one subpersonality to another.
	C)	feeling like his or her mind is floating above him or her.
	D)	malingering.

136.	If a person’s mental functioning or body feels unreal or foreign, the person is MOST likely suffering from:
	A)	body dysmorphic disorder.
	B)	depersonalization.
	C)	dissociative identity disorder.
	D)	dissociative amnesia.

137.	Feeling that your hands and feet are smaller or bigger than usual or that you are in a dreamlike state is called:
	A)	doubting.
	B)	dumbing down.
	C)	doubling.
	D)	distrusting.

138.	When a person feels that the external world is removed, mechanical, distorted, or even dead, he or she is experiencing:
	A)	doubling.
	B)	depersonalization.
	C)	dissociative amnesia.
	D)	derealization.

139.	Transient depersonalization and derealization:
	A)	are experienced by virtually all college students.
	B)	are produced naturally and cannot be induced by drugs or meditation.
	C)	can be induced by a life-threatening experience.
	D)	are common in adults but not yet diagnosed in children or adolescents.

140.	Depersonalization disorder is most common among:
	A)	preadolescents.
	B)	adolescents and young adults.
	C)	adults between the ages of 40 and 60.
	D)	adults over 60.

141.	If I suffer from depersonalization disorder, but the symptoms disappear after a while, they most likely will reappear if I:
	A)	get married to someone I really love.
	B)	survive a bad car accident.
	C)	travel on vacation near where I live.
	D)	experience a sudden bout of mania.

Answer Key

1.	B
2.	C
3.	A
4.	B
5.	C
6.	C
7.	C
8.	D
9.	C
10.	C
11.	C
12.	D
13.	B
14.	D
15.	B
16.	A
17.	A
18.	D
19.	A
20.	B
21.	D
22.	D
23.	B
24.	C
25.	D
26.	A
27.	A
28.	B
29.	D
30.	A
31.	B
32.	C
33.	B
34.	B
35.	A
36.	A
37.	A
38.	C
39.	B
40.	D
41.	C
42.	D
43.	A
44.	B
45.	B
46.	C
47.	D
48.	B
49.	D
50.	A
51.	D
52.	D
53.	A
54.	B
55.	D
56.	B
57.	C
58.	D
59.	A
60.	B
61.	C
62.	B
63.	A
64.	A
65.	A
66.	C
67.	B
68.	B
69.	C
70.	B
71.	D
72.	A
73.	C
74.	B
75.	B
76.	D
77.	B
78.	D
79.	C
80.	A
81.	C
82.	B
83.	A
84.	A
85.	B
86.	B
87.	D
88.	D
89.	D
90.	B
91.	B
92.	A
93.	C
94.	C
95.	C
96.	C
97.	A
98.	A
99.	B
100.	A
101.	B
102.	C
103.	C
104.	C
105.	B
106.	A
107.	C
108.	B
109.	B
110.	A
111.	B
112.	B
113.	B
114.	C
115.	C
116.	A
117.	B
118.	D
119.	C
120.	A
121.	C
122.	A
123.	D
124.	A
125.	A
126.	D
127.	B
128.	D
129.	D
130.	A
131.	D
132.	B
133.	C
134.	A
135.	C
136.	B
137.	C
138.	D
139.	C
140.	B
141.	B

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Fundamentals of Abnormal Psychology 8th Edition By Comer - Test Bank

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