Introduction to Psychology 10th Edition by Plotnik - Test Bank

Introduction to Psychology 10th Edition by Plotnik – Test Bank

Instant Download – Complete Test Bank With Answers

Sample Questions Are Posted Below

Name: _______________________ Class: ___________________ Date: __________ ID: A
1
5
Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. Which is not a characteristic of all senses?
a. transduction c. adaptation
b. translucence d. perception
____ 2. When the ear registers sound waves, the sound waves are transformed into electrical signals that become
neural impulses. This process is called:
a. perception c. adaptation
b. transduction d. sensation
____ 3. Which word best describes transduction?
a. stabilizes c. transform
b. creates d. reduces
____ 4. The eye changing light waves into impulses and the ear changing sound waves into impulses are
examples of:
a. transduction c. adaptation
b. translucence d. sensation
____ 5. The process of ____ refers to the sense organ changing physical energy into electrical signals that
become neural impulses.
a. adaptation c. transduction
b. perception d. sensation
____ 6. If a sense organ is continuously stimulated, the sense organ will decrease responding through the process
of:
a. transduction c. agnosia
b. perception d. adaptation
____ 7. Alyssa can抰 smell the dirty diapers on the baby, but everyone else can. Why?
a. Alyssa has experienced transduction. c. Alyssa has experienced adaptation.
b. Alyssa is dichromatic. d. Alyssa has damaged Pacinian corpuscles.
____ 8. If you do not feel the chair you are now sitting in, it is because:
a. constant rubbing numbs nerve endings
b. when there is constant stimulation, our senses experience a decrease in responding
c. sitting tends to constrict blood flow and partially numbs our skin senses
d. the temperature on the surface of the skin goes up and makes us less sensitive
____ 9. Denise is unaware of the feel of the chair she sits in while playing with her computer. Denise抯 lack of
sensitivity is the result of:
a. hypersensitivity c. lack of stimulation
b. changing stimuli d. adaptation
____ 10. Miranda and Joy are about to swim in a cold lake. Miranda jumps in and shortly experiences adaptation
to the cold water. What is she most likely to say?
a. 揑t抯 nice once you get used to it.?
b. 揑抦 having an attack of vertigo.?
c. 揑 can see the water much more clearly now.?
d. 揟 he water seems to have gotten colder.?
Name: ________________________ ID: A
2
____ 11. Adaptation is less likely to occur when the stimulus is:
a. constant c. mild
b. low intensity d. high intensity
____ 12. Sensations occur:
a. when a stimulus activates a receptor causing an impulse that is processed by the brain
b. right after we experience illusions
c. after the sense organs engage in perception
d. once you react to the sensory input
____ 13. Perception occurs:
a. after the rods and cones become activated
b. when a stimulus activates a receptor, causing an impulse that is processed by the brain
c. after meaningful combinations of sensory experiences are created
d. before transduction
____ 14. Sensations are to perception as ____ is to ____.
a. combining; separating c. meaningless; meaningful
b. adaptation; transduction d. illusion; constancy
____ 15. Each sense organ is designed to receive a kind of ____.
a. perception c. visible spectrum
b. chemical d. physical energy
____ 16. What do radio waves, X-rays, TV waves, and light waves all have in common? They are all:
a. located at the shorter end of the electromagnetic energy spectrum
b. forms of electromagnetic energy
c. examples of ultra-violet waves
d. in the invisible spectrum
____ 17. The reason that we can 搒 ee? a rainbow is because the light waves are:
a. at the shorter end of the electromagnetic energy spectrum
b. at the longer end of the electromagnetic energy spectrum
c. ultra-violet waves
d. in our visible spectrum
____ 18. The portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that receptors in the eye are sensitive to is referred to as the
____ spectrum.
a. visible c. upper
b. light d. lower
____ 19. As an image of an object goes through the front structures of the eye, the object抯 image:
a. is perceived by the individual
b. is converted into a longer electromagnetic wavelength
c. is turned upside down
d. is detected by the retina
____ 20. In order for you to see, your eye must change ____ beams of light waves into ____ beams of light waves.
a. narrow; broad c. invisible; visible
b. broad; narrow d. narrow; visible
____ 21. The structure in the front of the eye that first helps focus light waves into a narrower beam is the:
a. fovea c. cornea
b. retina d. iris
Name: ________________________ ID: A
3
____ 22. How does the lens of the eye focus light on to the retina?
a. The lens goes through a process called transduction.
b. The lens is attached to muscles that change the curve of the lens.
c. The lens is attached to ganglion cells that send competing nerve impulses to the brain.
d. The lens goes through a process of adaptation.
____ 23. The ____ of the eye can adjust its shape and focus light on the back surface of the eye called the ____.
a. cornea; lens c. lens; retina
b. iris; fovea d. pupil; ocular membrane
____ 24. Deb has blue eyes; Erv抯 eyes are brown. The difference in eye color is the result of different pigments in
the:
a. iris c. cornea
b. pupil d. lens
____ 25. Vi shines a flashlight into Mike抯 eye. The bright light will cause Mike抯 iris to:
a. relax and pupil to enlarge c. relax and pupil to become smaller
b. constrict and pupil to become smaller d. constrict and pupil to enlarge
____ 26. With far away objects, the surface of the lens becomes:
a. less transparent c. less curved
b. more curved d. more transparent
____ 27. If the eyeball is too long, light from distant objects focuses at a point slightly in front of the retina,
resulting in:
a. farsightedness c. cataracts
b. nearsightedness d. night blindness
____ 28. If you see distant objects clearly but close objects appear blurry, you are:
a. nearsighted c. normal
b. farsighted d. abnormal
____ 29. If the eyeball is too short, light from distant objects focuses at a point slightly in back of the retina,
resulting in:
a. farsightedness c. cataracts
b. nearsightedness d. night blindness
____ 30. Uncle Randy finds that he is having trouble reading the newspaper, even when he holds it at arm抯
length. In fact, he has trouble focusing on close objects. It is probable that light is being focused:
a. slightly in front of the retina c. slightly behind the retina
b. beside the fovea d. slightly in front of the fovea
____ 31. The path that the light takes as it enters your eye is:
a. cornea, pupil, lens, retina c. lens, cornea, pupil, retina
b. pupil, lens, retina, sclera d. fovea, lens, cornea, retina
____ 32. The surgical technique called LASIK is used to treat:
a. Meniere抯 disease c. conduction deafness
b. nearsighted vision d. neural deafness
____ 33. Light-sensitive cells in the retina are called:
a. iris c. lens
b. cornea d. photoreceptors
Name: ________________________ ID: A
4
____ 34. The kinds of photoreceptors in the retina are:
a. ganglion cells and end bulbs c. cochlea and cones
b. rods and cones d. Meniere抯 bodies and glial cells
____ 35. How many layers of cells are found in the retina?
a. one c. three
b. two d. four
____ 36. Transduction in the visual system takes place in the:
a. cornea c. retina
b. lens d. iris
____ 37. Rods are primarily located in the:
a. fovea c. iris in farsighted individuals
b. periphery of the retina d. optic nerve
____ 38. A heavy concentration of cones can be found in:
a. the periphery of the retina c. the fovea
b. the optic nerve d. primary visual cortex
____ 39. The point of exit for impulses on their way from the eye to the brain is called the:
a. fovea c. retina
b. blind spot d. optic chiasm
____ 40. Most people are not aware of their blind spot because the area that is lost is filled in by the:
a. continuous back and forth movement of the eyes
b. association areas in the brain that give meaning to sensations
c. optic nerve
d. optic chiasm
____ 41. The structures responsible for our ability to see color are the:
a. cones c. rhodopsins
b. rods d. foveas
____ 42. Cones contain three different kinds of:
a. opsins c. transopsins
b. chromopsins d. rhodopsin
____ 43. The ____ connect individually to neighboring cells. This allows us to see ____.
a. cones; in dim light c. cones; in fine detail
b. rods; in fine detail d. rods; in color
____ 44. Which of the following structures allows you to read these words and see other stimuli in fine detail?
a. rods c. ganglion cells
b. cones d. cochlea
____ 45. Rods contain a single type of:
a. opsin c. transopsin
b. chromopsin d. rhodopsin
____ 46. Rods are used to see:
a. blacks, whites, and shades of gray c. fine detail and primary colors
b. shades of color and fine detail d. colors and general outlines
Name: ________________________ ID: A
5
____ 47. Your astronomy professor must have taken a psychology class. He says to best look at a dim star, don抰
look directly at it, but to the side. Why is this good advice?
a. Rods are located in the fovea of the retina and respond best in dim light, whereas cones
best respond to bright light and are located in the periphery.
b. Your cornea has special cells that function when looking at dim light from the side.
c. Rods are located in the periphery of the retina and respond best in dim light, whereas
cones best respond to bright light and are located in the fovea.
d. Cones are located in the periphery of the retina and respond best in dim light, whereas
rods best respond to bright light and are located in the fovea.
____ 48. When you look at objects in dim light, the objects lack color and clarity because:
a. cones are unable to see colors
b. of the process of light adaptation
c. the optic nerve does not register wavelengths of light when it is dark
d. rods do not distinguish colors or fine details
____ 49. Rods are to ____ as cones are to ____.
a. the fovea; the lens c. opsin; rhodopsin
b. small amounts of light; bright light d. light adaptation; dark adaptation
____ 50. If you look at a dim light, which of the following will show strong activation?
a. the fovea c. opsin
b. cones d. rods
____ 51. Information is transmitted from the eye to the brain through the:
a. fovea c. optic nerve
b. cornea d. retina
____ 52. Which brain structure performs the initial processing of visual stimuli?
a. thalamus c. fovea
b. cornea d. visual association areas
____ 53. The primary visual cortex:
a. creates perceptions out of visual sensations
b. transforms nerve impulses into simple sensations
c. focuses light waves on the retina
d. transforms sensory information into a nerve impulse
____ 54. The ____ sends simple visual sensations to the ____, which add(s) meaning to the sensations.
a. retina; lens c. optic nerve; optic chiasm
b. primary visual cortex; association areas d. rods; cones
____ 55. Hubel and Wiesel have shown that cells located in the brain抯 primary visual cortex respond to ____
stimuli.
a. very general c. very specific
b. intense d. weak
____ 56. Sidney is shown a picture of a dog. He reports being able to see the picture but cannot identify it as a dog.
Sidney has likely suffered damage to which part of his brain?
a. hypothalamus c. optic lobe
b. thalamus d. visual association areas
Name: ________________________ ID: A
6
____ 57. Janice comments on the texture of the brush strokes in a painting. She does not notice the complexity of
the visual image. Janice is probably relying on information provided by her:
a. thalamus c. visual association areas
b. cones d. primary visual cortex
____ 58. After a traffic accident, a patient was diagnosed as having damage to parts of the primary visual cortex of
the brain. Such damage will:
a. usually affect one eye
b. always result in total blindness
c. result in an inability to recognize objects
d. result in the loss of sight in spots of the patient抯 visual field
____ 59. What is the function of association areas?
a. Association areas allow us to see color.
b. Association areas respond to certain kinds of visual stimuli.
c. Association areas add meaning to the sensation.
d. Association areas help to focus light waves on the retina.
____ 60. A car accident completely destroys Ann抯 primary visual cortex. The most likely effect of the accident is
that Ann will:
a. experience double vision
b. be almost totally blind
c. lose color but not black-and-white vision
d. be able to see close objects but not distant ones
____ 61. As you walk on campus, you suddenly recognize an old friend who is heading towards you. What point in
the visual pathway is responsible for the creation of this meaningful image of an old friend?
a. rhodopsin c. primary visual cortex
b. visual association areas d. cornea
____ 62. A difficulty in assembling simple visual sensations into more complex, meaningful images is called:
a. sensory deficit c. visual agnosia
b. perceptual aphasia d. night blindness
____ 63. White light contains:
a. all the light waves in the visible spectrum
b. long wavelength light
c. all light waves except those of the wavelength corresponding to blue
d. the primary color
____ 64. What effect does a prism have on light?
a. It creates white light.
b. It separates light into white light of three wavelengths.
c. It creates the colors of orange, red, yellow, and blue.
d. It separates light into waves that vary in length.
____ 65. The trichromatic theory explains how:
a. we experience an afterimage
b. the brain changes light waves into color
c. cones in the retina change light waves into colors
d. rods in the retina change light waves into colors
Name: ________________________ ID: A
7
____ 66. A chemist named Thomas Young believed that the cones are most responsive to blue, green, and red
light. This theory is called the:
a. opponent-process theory c. theory of reasoned colors
b. trichromatic theory d. adaptation theory
____ 67. According to the trichromatic theory, the primary colors are:
a. yellow, blue, white c. orange, green, gray
b. blue, green, red d. brown, black, white
____ 68. The ____ theory identifies three different types of cones in the retina.
a. trichromatic c. trioptic
b. trineural d. triconical
____ 69. Each of the three opsins in the cones is most sensitive to one of the three:
a. types of agnosia
b. different categories of ganglion cells located at the front layer of the retina
c. wavelengths of light that make up the three primary colors
d. association areas
____ 70. How we individually experience 搑 ed? depends on:
a. how many color genes a person has c. the gender of the individual
b. how many rods a person has d. the age of the individual
____ 71. A wrestler gets poked in the eye. His color vision will be most affected if the poke damages the:
a. lens c. cones
b. rods d. cornea
____ 72. Whereas the trichromatic theory focuses on the functions of the cones, the opponent-process theory
explains color vision by studying the:
a. rods c. ganglion cells and thalamus
b. opsins d. optic nerve and retina
____ 73. A ganglion cell responds to the color blue when excited, and to the color yellow when inhibited. This
idea is characteristic of the:
a. opponent-process theory c. theory of reasoned colors
b. trichromatic theory d. adaptation theory
____ 74. Ed has trouble driving because he cannot tell the difference between green and red lights. Ed has:
a. night blindness c. color blindness
b. agnosia d. opponent process disorder
____ 75. Monochromats are people who:
a. have only cones c. see bright colors better than dark colors
b. see only in black and white d. see only primary colors
____ 76. A psychology professor is describing the experience of color blindness. She says, 揑t抯 like living in a
black and white movie.? What type of color blindness is she describing?
a. primary color blindness c. trichromatic color blindness
b. unichromatic color blindness d. monochromatic color blindness
____ 77. An individual who has only one kind of functioning cone will have:
a. night blindness c. total color blindness
b. dichromatic color blindness d. problems with light adaptation
Name: ________________________ ID: A
8
____ 78. In first grade, Thomas is found to be a monochromat. Thomas was born without:
a. attached retinas
b. functioning cones
c. complete cell development in one of the hemispheres of the occipital lobe
d. sight in one eye
____ 79. The most common problem for a dichromat is:
a. an inability to focus both eyes on a near object at the same time
b. seeing printed stimuli as though they were inside out and backwards
c. an inability to recognize objects presented visually
d. an inability to distinguish between red and green
____ 80. The range of hearing for college students is:
a. 30 to 18,000 cycles per seconds c. 400 to 800 cycles per seconds
b. 400 to 700 nanometers d. 30 to 18,000 nanometers
____ 81. Which of the following pitches should a ringtone be if the cell phone owner does not want adults over 70
years of age to be likely to hear it?
a. 8,000 cycles per second c. 17,000 cycles per second
b. 8,000 nanometers d. 800 nanometers
____ 82. Subjective experience on the loudness of sound is determined by the:
a. amplitude of the sound wave c. shape of the sound wave
b. frequency of the sound wave d. duration of the sound wave
____ 83. As the decibels of a sound increase, the:
a. frequency decreases c. amplitude decreases
b. frequency increases d. amplitude increases
____ 84. Which of the following statements regarding sound waves is incorrect?
a. high amplitude is perceived by the brain as loud
b. low amplitude is perceived by the brain as soft
c. the subjective experience of a high or low note is determined by frequency
d. fast frequency is perceived as a high note
____ 85. Sound waves that have a lower frequency are perceived to be:
a. a high note c. loud in volume
b. a low note d. soft in volume
____ 86. The height of a sound wave is called ____ and the speed of the sound wave is called ____.
a. frequency; decibel c. altitude; amplitude
b. volume; frequency d. amplitude; frequency
____ 87. Pitch is determined by:
a. the amplitude of the sound wave
b. the number of molecules of air affected by the sound-producing object
c. the frequency of the sound wave
d. the time it takes for a sound to reach the ear
____ 88. 揟 hat is awful!? says Franco as he listens to a duet singing a song at a concert. 揘 either singer seems to be
able to sing in tune!? Which of the characteristics of sound is most likely the cause of the awful singing?
a. loudness c. amplitude
b. decibel d. pitch
Name: ________________________ ID: A
9
____ 89. At the opera, we can distinguish between the low sound of the male bass and the high sound of the female
soprano because the voices differ in:
a. pitch c. amplitude
b. loudness d. decibels
____ 90. As Diana runs her fingers up the keyboard, the pitch gets higher and higher. As the pitch increases, the:
a. frequency gets faster c. amplitude gets slower
b. decibels get smaller d. cycles per second decreases
____ 91. Amplitude is to loudness as ____ is to ____.
a. pitch; frequency c. decibel; whisper
b. frequency; pitch d. yell; decibel
____ 92. Jake is a drummer in a rock-and-roll band and plays 45 rock concerts a year. He is likely to be exposed to
sounds reaching as high as:
a. 50 decibels c. 90 decibels
b. 70 decibels d. 120 decibels
____ 93. Too much amplitude in a stimulus can cause:
a. visual agnosia c. deafness
b. vertigo d. blindness
____ 94. The artist Vincent van Gogh cut off his ear toward the end of his life. A psychologist would note more
precisely that van Gogh cut off his:
a. stirrup c. cochlea
b. pinna d. eardrum
____ 95. Conrad is always sticking a pencil into his ear to dig out wax. His mother has repeatedly told him, 揋 et
that pencil out of your ear.? To be more precise Conrad抯 mother should say 揋 et that pencil out of your:
a. middle ear? c. auditory canal?
b. inner ear? d. tympanic membrane?
____ 96. The thin membrane that moves in and out in response to sound wave patterns and passes the vibrations to
the middle ear is the:
a. tympanic membrane c. cochlear membrane
b. auditory nerve d. basilar membrane
____ 97. The vibrations of the eardrum that are caused by sound waves are amplified in the:
a. outer ear c. middle ear
b. inner ear d. ear canal
____ 98. The primary function of the ossicles is to:
a. transform sound waves into impulses
b. gather sound waves and send them into the middle ear
c. pass sound waves from the outer ear to the oval window
d. assemble sensations into perceptions
____ 99. Vibrations of the eardrum set in motion three small bones in the middle ear. These are:
a. cochlea, basilar membrane, oval window c. stirrup, oval window, canal
b. hammer, anvil, stirrup d. anvil, cochlea, hammer
____ 100. Which of the following sayings best describes the relationship between the hammer, anvil, and stirrup?
a. Passing the buck. c. Out of sight, out of mind.
b. A stitch in time saves nine. d. A penny saved is a penny earned.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
10
____ 101. In what order do sound waves pass through the auditory system?
a. external ear, stirrup, auditory canal, tympanic membrane, hammer, anvil, and cochlea
b. external ear, auditory canal, hammer, tympanic membrane, anvil, stirrup, and cochlea
c. external ear, auditory canal, tympanic membrane, hammer, anvil, stirrup, and cochlea
d. external ear, auditory canal, anvil, stirrup, cochlea, tympanic membrane, and hammer
____ 102. Vibrations in the oval window cause fluid to move back and forth in the:
a. middle ear c. auditory nerve
b. cochlea d. auditory receptors
____ 103. Neural impulses in the ear begin with:
a. a liquid chemical stimulating nerve endings
b. the bending of tiny hair cells
c. sound waves stimulating nerve endings
d. the vibration of the basilar membrane stimulating nerve endings
____ 104. A nerve impulse will be generated in the cochlea when:
a. movements of the basilar membrane stimulate the hair cells
b. sound waves vibrate the ossicles
c. the sound is recognized by the primary auditory cortex
d. vibrations travel through the auditory canal
____ 105. The auditory receptors are called:
a. hair cells c. ossicles
b. rods d. cones
____ 106. Jeremy is deaf because his hair cells have been damaged. The reason Jeremy cannot hear is because the:
a. sound waves cannot be transformed into nerve impulses
b. sound waves cannot cause the oval window to vibrate
c. tympanic membrane does not receive information from the basilar membrane
d. cochlea has no fluid to generate sound vibrations
____ 107. Nerve impulses are transmitted from the cochlea to the brain via the:
a. oval window c. auditory nerve
b. basilar membrane d. stirrup
____ 108. Auditory association areas in the brain:
a. send impulses to the middle ear which vibrate the ossicles
b. transform meaningless sounds into meaningful perceptions
c. trigger nerve impulses that activate the hair cells
d. convert nerve impulses into sensations of sound
____ 109. Nerve impulses from the inner ear are converted into sensations of meaningless sounds in the:
a. association areas c. primary auditory cortex
b. cochlea d. tympanic membrane
____ 110. Jackie抯 auditory association area is damaged, but other structures are healthy. What will be her auditory
experience?
a. She can recognize songs, but not spoken words.
b. She can hear basic auditory sounds.
c. Total deafness.
d. She can recognize individual words, but not complete sentences.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
11
____ 111. The ____ transforms auditory sensations into meaningful perception.
a. auditory association area c. vestibular system
b. primary auditory cortex d. basilar membrane
____ 112. A golfer yells 揻 ore? after hitting a golf ball in the direction of Morris. Morris turns in the direction of the
yell and is able to avoid the ball. Morris was able to determine the direction of the yell because of:
a. movements of hair cells within the basilar membrane
b. movements of fluid within the cochlea
c. the sound of the yell hitting both ears at the same time
d. the sound of the yell hitting one ear before the other
____ 113. Which of the following best describes how the brain judges the direction of sounds?
a. by calculating the amount of bend in hair cells
b. by calculating the difference in time it takes sound to reach both ears
c. by calculating the speed of fluid movement in the cochlea
d. by calculating the speed that it takes sound to reach the auditory association areas
____ 114. The frequency theory and place theory are explanations of how the auditory system calculates:
a. amplitude c. loudness
b. direction d. pitch
____ 115. According to the frequency theory, the auditory system converts the frequency of sound waves into the
subjective experience of:
a. loudness c. pitch
b. amplitude d. volley
____ 116. According to the place theory, the auditory system converts the frequency of sound waves into the
subjective experience of ____ based upon the place along the basilar membrane where there is maximum
vibration.
a. loudness c. pitch
b. amplitude d. volley
____ 117. The theory that assumes that different frequencies of sound waves stimulate different areas along the
basilar membrane is called:
a. volley theory c. frequency theory
b. place theory d. opponent-process theory
____ 118. The ear senses loudness by:
a. how slow or fast nerve impulses are transmitted from the auditory nerve to the brain
b. the location of the most intense stimulation in the cochlea fluid
c. the electrical strength of the neural impulse sent to the brain
d. the number of vibrations reaching the cochlea
____ 119. The brain transforms the rate of impulses into:
a. perceptions of which direction the sound came from
b. sensations of loudness
c. the pitch of the noise that was perceived
d. sound waves of differing pitch
____ 120. Toan抯 voice causes a slow rate of nerve impulses in your auditory system, while Hector抯 voice causes
a fast rate. Toan is ____ and Hector is ____.
a. yelling; whispering c. whispering; yelling
b. screaming; yelling d. yelling; whispering
Name: ________________________ ID: A
12
____ 121. The vestibular sense provides our awareness of:
a. position and balance c. taste
b. smell d. taste and flavor
____ 122. What structures in the inner ear help us to maintain balance?
a. tympanic membranes c. ossicles
b. semicircular canals d. meniere抯 rings
____ 123. The vestibular system helps us to keep balance by providing information:
a. on the position of the head c. about the position of the body
b. to the cerebellum d. regarding the outside environment
____ 124. Motion sickness may result from:
a. the brain抯 inability to function properly when jostled
b. visual confusion caused by distant objects appearing blurry
c. contradictory information from the vestibular and visual systems
d. the continuous movement of the olfactory cells
____ 125. While Sarah and Renee are watching a movie on a large screen of an airplane flying through the Grand
Canyon, both of them feel motion sickness. Why?
a. Expectation of feeling sick from the reports of their friends.
b. Information from the visual system contradicts information from the vestibular system.
c. They have flying phobia.
d. Motion sickness is most common among thrill-seekers like Sarah and Renee.
____ 126. Your vestibular system says that your head is bouncing around; your eyes say that the physical world is
steady and not bouncing around. The result of this inconsistency is:
a. Meniere抯 disease c. subliminal motion
b. Muller-Lyer illusion d. motion sickness
____ 127. Which of the following is the most important with regard to your kinesthetic sense?
a. Pacinian corpuscles c. endorphins
b. gravity d. amacrine cells
____ 128. Your _____ system is responsible for informing you about your body抯 positions and motions relative to
gravity.
a. vestibular c. kinesthetic
b. corpuscular d. cerebellar
____ 129. Taste and smell are classified as chemical senses because they:
a. respond to chemicals in the sensory neurotransmitters
b. send chemical impulses to the somatosensory cortex
c. detect chemical changes in the Pacinian corpuscle
d. react to chemical stimuli
____ 130. To how many basic tastes can people respond?
a. three c. seven
b. five d. nine
____ 131. Linda claims to be a very good judge of wine because she has sensitive taste buds. For which of the
following does Linda not have receptors?
a. sweetness c. acidity
b. sourness d. bitterness
Name: ________________________ ID: A
13
____ 132. From an evolutionary view, _______ would be better able to identify and avoid poisonous foods.
a. females c. supertasters
b. monochromats d. children
____ 133. What is the meaty-cheese taste called?
a. umami c. Meniere
b. Pacinian d. mukluk
____ 134. The receptors for taste are called:
a. Pacinian buds c. flavor buds
b. capsaicin buds d. taste buds
____ 135. Louie breaks Jim抯 nose during a basketball game. In addition to smell, which of Jim抯 senses will be
most affected by the injury?
a. cold c. taste
b. pressure d. touch
____ 136. Humans have an innate desire to avoid ____ tastes, and it is believed that this avoidance is advantageous
to survival.
a. salty c. umami
b. sweet d. bitter
____ 137. A supertaster is someone:
a. who has at least twice as many more taste buds than normal
b. who has 10 times more flavor buds than normal
c. whose sense of flavor is exceptionally sensitive
d. whose saliva glands are two times larger than normal
____ 138. Flavors are detected by:
a. combining our senses of taste and smell
b. mixing two or more of the same basic tastes
c. the taste buds translating the taste of the chemicals
d. an innate ability to identify tastes
____ 139. Which of the following would make a cola taste test more difficult?
a. removing the carbonation
b. asking the tester to hold his nose
c. asking the tester to eat a cracker between tastes
d. asking the tester to look at the cola before tasting it
____ 140. If we could state one抯 sense of flavor in a mathematical formula, what would it look like?
a. taste + smell = flavor c. taste + spicy = flavor
b. taste = flavor d. bitter + sour + salty + sweet = flavor
____ 141. Little Austen hates the taste of cough syrup. When he has to take his medicine, he would be happier if he:
a. did not look at the medicine
b. plugged his nose
c. smelled the medicine before drinking it
d. tasted the medicine a little before gulping it down
Name: ________________________ ID: A
14
____ 142. Whenever you smell a particular perfume, you think of your grandmother Grace. You know that it
involves memory, but how?
a. Smell triggers memories.
b. Smell is connected to the thalamus where memories are stored.
c. Smell is connected to the limbic system where emotions and memories are processed.
d. Smell is connected to the corpus callosum where memories are stored.
____ 143. What is the best explanation for why advertisers use attractive scents to encourage us to make purchases?
a. Smell is processed by the same brain area that is used in attention.
b. Our senses are organized in such a way that our smell directs where and when we look at
objects.
c. Smell can prevent episodes of vertigo, allowing consumers to make purchases.
d. Smell is more connected to our limbic system than other senses.
____ 144. Olfactory cells are stimulated by:
a. the taste buds? response to a chemical stimulus
b. molecules dissolving in the mucus covering the cells
c. the sniffing action of the outer nasal passages
d. the primary olfactory cortex
____ 145. If you were to trace the path of neural impulses in olfaction, which of the following paths would be
correct?
a. olfactory cells and primary olfactory cortex
b. olfactory cells, thalamus, and primary olfactory cortex
c. olfactory cells, olfactory bulb, and primary olfactory cortex
d. hair cells, olfactory bulb, thalamus, and primary olfactory cortex
____ 146. The receptors for smell are called:
a. olfactory cells c. ossicles
b. Pacinian corpuscles d. taste buds
____ 147. Which of the following best explains why we soon stop smelling our own deodorant, cologne, or
perfume?
a. consolidation c. transduction
b. olfaction d. adaptation
____ 148. You enter a classroom full of people only to smell someone抯 very strong perfume. At the end of class,
you notice that you don抰 smell the perfume. This best illustrates:
a. consolidation c. transduction
b. adaptation d. olfaction
____ 149. Where are hair receptors in the skin?
a. wrapped around the cones
b. in the somatosensory cortex
c. wrapped around Pacinian corpuscles
d. wrapped around the base of each hair follicle
____ 150. Our sense of touch comes from:
a. a half-dozen miniature sensors located in the skin
b. millions of tiny nerves on the surface of the skin
c. special glands for pressure, temperature, and pain
d. stimulation of the tiny hairs that cover the body
Name: ________________________ ID: A
15
____ 151. Which of the following, located in the fat layer of the skin, allows us to respond to vibrations?
a. the free nerve endings c. the Pacinian corpuscles
b. the hair receptors d. the ossicles
____ 152. Free nerve endings:
a. can transmit information about temperature and pain
b. respond when hairs on the skin are bent or pulled up
c. are the only receptors to respond to vibration
d. have a protective structure surrounding them
____ 153. Consider this: A free nerve ending, rod, and a Pacinian corpuscle walk into a bar and each orders a cold
beer. Which one is most likely to tell the bartender that the beer is warm?
a. rod c. free nerve ending
b. Pacinian corpuscle d. rod and Pacinian corpuscle
____ 154. The outermost layer of skin:
a. has no sensory receptors c. is composed entirely of hair receptors
b. contains free nerve endings d. is called the outerderm
____ 155. You are capable of shrinking to a small enough size to fit into nerves and be able to follow the
transmission of nerve impulses. You would find that nerve impulses from the skin would travel to the:
a. lateral geniculate lobe c. occipital lobe
b. somatosensory cortex d. frontal lobe
____ 156. Which sense can be suppressed by psychological factors?
a. vibration c. color vision
b. pain d. pressure
____ 157. According to the theory of evolution, the primary purpose of the expression 揹 isgust? is to:
a. communicate disapproval of the behaviors of others
b. show rejection of young children抯 behaviors
c. indicate rejection of contaminated or dangerous foods
d. indicate rejection of offensive odors
____ 158. You attend a presentation on campus on emotional expressions. The speaker claims that disgust is typical
of expressions in that it depends on the culture. What is your educated reaction to this claim?
a. You disagree since disgust is only found in Western cultures.
b. You disagree. Disgust is a basic emotion and is expressed the same around the world.
c. You agree, but add that how it is expressed depends on the age of the individual.
d. You agree. The facial expression of disgust depends on the culture.
____ 159. The fact that most of us would find fish eyes, blood, and grubs repulsive to eat suggests that:
a. third world cultures have very unhealthy diets
b. our agricultural system is the best in the world
c. our culture is far superior to any other in the world
d. most of our tastes are shaped by our culture
____ 160. A(n) ____ is an intervention that has no real medical effects; ____ is a change in the person抯 condition
due to the bogus intervention.
a. placebo; placebo effect c. endorphin; placebo effect
b. pseudomed; attribution d. double-blind; placebo
____ 161. To test for placebo effects, researchers use a design called:
a. double-blind procedure c. random sampling
b. single-blind procedure d. counterbalancing
Name: ________________________ ID: A
16
____ 162. Given the research described in the textbook, what percentage of doctors has actually prescribed placebos
to patients?
a. 2-10% c. 45-85%
b. 15-25% d. 75-95%
____ 163. One of the strongest placebo effects involves:
a. reducing body temperature c. relieving stomach cramps
b. relieving pain d. reducing depression
____ 164. Researchers studying the relationship between placebo effects and the cost of medicine reported:
a. the placebo effects depend on both the cost and the patient抯 perception of the doctor抯
competence
b. no relationship was found
c. the pricier the pill, the stronger the placebo effects
d. the pricier the pill, the weaker the placebo effects
____ 165. Dr. Smalley is conducting research on a new high blood pressure drug. He assigns patients to three
groups: one group gets the new drug, one receives a placebo; and the third group gets a drug that is the
standard drug to treat high blood pressure. But Dr. Smalley and his patients do not know who is receiving
what treatment. This is an example of a:
a. randomized Latin squares design c. double-blind design
b. repeated measures design d. stratified sample design
____ 166. The fact that fake surgeries and inert medications can cause placebo effects points to the idea that:
a. mental factors such as beliefs and expectations can influence pain perception
b. the medical community has the ingenuity to save money on health care
c. pain is just a physical experience
d. a person抯 doctor must be watched very closely
____ 167. Psychologists are particularly interested in the placebo effect because it suggests a:
a. mind-over-body interaction c. body-over-mind interaction
b. way to reduce medical costs d. way to take patients from psychiatrists
____ 168. The sense of pain differs from the other senses in that:
a. pain is a mechanical sense, and the other senses are all chemical senses
b. impulses from the skin receptors do not communicate with the brain
c. the other senses depend on intensity of the stimulus and psychological factors
d. pain can be triggered by many different stimuli
____ 169. Where does the perception of pain take place?
a. free nerve endings
b. somatosensory and limbic areas of the brain
c. neural gates
d. pain receptors
____ 170. What effect do social, psychological, and emotional factors have on pain?
a. All three factors can cause pain, but not increase or decrease it.
b. Just social and emotional factors cause pain.
c. All may cause, increase, or decrease pain.
d. Only emotional factors can increase pain.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
17
____ 171. When looking at the brains of people who were given a placebo, researchers found
a. the same brain areas activated as real painkillers
b. an overall increase in brain activity
c. an overall decrease in brain activity
d. the same brain areas activated as in dreaming
____ 172. You抳 e stubbed your big toe. You start rubbing it to reduce the pain. What would the gate control theory
of pain say about your action?
a. It should not be helpful since the gate control theory of pain is not valid.
b. Your action will not help since pain gates are closed through the release of endorphins.
c. Your action should help to reduce pain since it prevents the release of endorphins.
d. It should be helpful since nonpainful nerve messages from rubbing your toe will close
the pain gate.
____ 173. According to the gate control theory:
a. rubbing a painful area triggers nonpainful impulses, which compete with painful
impulses
b. the spinal cord allows only painful impulses to pass through and reach the brain
c. pain is reduced by distracting yourself from thinking about the pain
d. neural gates close when a person抯 emotional state calms down
____ 174. One study found that if subjects thought a shock given to them was intentional versus accidental, they
rate the shock as:
a. less painful c. less manageable
b. more painful d. more manageable
____ 175. Of the following, which has been shown to reduce the experience of pain?
a. focusing on an unpleasant image c. increased attention
b. decreased emotion d. decreased physical movement
____ 176. Four of your friends were hurt in a skiing accident and each is at home recovering from their painful
injuries. Based on the gate control theory of pain, who is most likely to have the most pain?
a. Guy reads mystery novels.
b. Travis likes to write in his journal and letters to relatives.
c. Cyndy watches movies on cable.
d. Lacey sits around the house and complains about the pain.
____ 177. During Game 6 of the 1988 NBA playoff finals, Isaiah Thomas played a great game despite a severely
sprained ankle. Thomas抯 amazing ability to play despite the injury is due to:
a. endorphins being released by the brain
b. small-diameter sensory nerves being activated
c. high pain tolerance in professional athletes
d. superior physical conditioning
____ 178. Chemicals produced in the brain that have many of the same properties as morphine are called:
a. opsins c. endorphins
b. endocrines d. estrogens
____ 179. The brain produces endorphins during:
a. REM sleep c. periods of physical pleasure
b. periods of severe stress d. NREM sleep
Name: ________________________ ID: A
18
____ 180. According to a study described in Module Five, patients with jaw pain who received a placebo injection:
a. experienced an increase in REI sleep c. showed decreased levels of endorphins
b. showed increased levels of endorphins d. reported less dread
____ 181. The effects of endorphins are similar to the effects of:
a. dopamine c. nicotine
b. caffeine d. morphine
____ 182. Dr. McCurnin says that the brain has its own factory that makes pain killers. Dr. McCurnin is:
a. describing a theory c. referring to endorphins
b. making a reference to neurotransmitters d. wrong
____ 183. A worker in a lumber mill suffers a serious injury when he gets his arm caught in the machinery. Though
the experience is painful, it is less painful than it might be because:
a. the worker is probably too delirious to experience much pain
b. the pain sensors are probably damaged in such an injury
c. trauma blocks the production of sodium ions and so transmission of pain impulses is
blocked
d. the brain produces endorphins, which stop receptors from signaling pain
____ 184. Those subjects who experienced intense dread in the study described in Module Five showed increased
activity in:
a. the brain areas associated with memory c. the brain areas associated with pain
b. the thalamus d. the parietal lobe
____ 185. Based on the study on dread in Module Five, what would people dread most about getting a root canal?
a. waiting for it
b. the pain associated with the procedure
c. the pain associated with the recovery and healing
d. the possibility that the dentist will find other problems
____ 186. Holly hurts her shoulder playing tennis. A therapist inserts needles in several points on her body and
stimulates them. The therapist is treating Holly抯 shoulder using:
a. biofeedback c. cognitive programming
b. acupuncture d. behavioral programming
____ 187. Scientists have studied how acupuncture is effective in reducing pain. One idea presented in your
textbook suggests that:
a. the needles interfere with the sodium pumps in the neuron
b. it alters the magnetic wave energy surrounding your body
c. endorphins are secreted from stimulating points along the pain pathway
d. the brain is stimulated to produce aspirin
____ 188. It appears that acupuncture is not effective in treating:
a. headaches c. nausea
b. back pain d. knee pain
____ 189. In a study where subjects thought they were getting acupuncture in their right arm, but only received a
fake acupuncture treatment, they:
a. reported more pain in their arm
b. figured out that the treatment was not real
c. reported less pain in their arm
d. reported less feeling in their arm
Name: ________________________ ID: A
19
____ 190. What seems to be the best explanation for the reported effects of acupuncture?
a. the competence of the doctor c. belief in its effectiveness
b. the time of day the acupuncture is given d. the age of the patient
____ 191. A microchip implanted into the retina could:
a. restore full vision c. change light waves into electrical signals
b. help farsighted individuals d. help dichromats see more colors
____ 192. Stan, who is blind because of damage to the optic nerves, is participating in a research study on artificial
senses. He is eligible for an experimental device to help him see, at least partially. Which of the
following is best suited for Stan?
a. cochlear implant
b. upon further review, Stan cannot be helped
c. artificial eye and retina
d. implanting tiny wires from a camera into his visual cortex
____ 193. Conduction deafness differs from neural deafness in that:
a. conduction deafness cannot be treated
b. neural deafness can be treated when cells regenerate
c. conduction deafness can be helped with an external hearing aid
d. neural deafness can be helped with an external hearing aid
____ 194. Mary抯 grandfather suffers from hearing loss. The doctor recommends a hearing aid. Grandfather抯
condition is most likely:
a. neural deafness c. conduction deafness
b. auditory fatigue d. cochlea fatigue
____ 195. Conduction deafness involves conditions that:
a. interfere with transmitting vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the cochlea
b. are not improved by the use of a hearing aid
c. involve damage to the auditory receptor cells along the basilar membrane
d. are caused by damage to association areas
____ 196. Neural deafness is caused by:
a. the presence of carbamide in the auditory canal
b. injury to the tympanic membrane
c. malfunction of the ossicles
d. damage to the hair cells
____ 197. A firecracker explodes near Timmy抯 ear. Most of his hearing is lost. A doctor抯 examination shows
damage to his auditory nerve. Timmy is suffering from:
a. auditory fatigue c. cochlea implant
b. neural deafness d. conduction deafness
____ 198. A doctor suggests that a patient may benefit from an electronic ear implant. The person probably has:
a. conductive deafness c. damage to associative areas of the brain
b. middle ear damage d. neural deafness
____ 199. Cochlear implants involve small electronic devices that take the place of the:
a. ear drum c. hair cells
b. basilar membrane d. anvil, hammer, and stirrup
Name: ________________________ ID: A
20
____ 200. Three-year old John has just received a cochlear implant. Based on material presented in your textbook,
he will need:
a. a replacement in two years c. intensive motor skill rehabilitation
b. a replacement in five years d. intensive speech rehabilitation
____ 201. People with Congenital Insensitivity to Pain with Anhidrosis (CIPA) do not experience pain. In addition,
these individuals:
a. cannot regulate their body temperature
b. are more likely to develop Alzheimer抯 disease
c. do not produce endorphins
d. suffer from Meniere抯 disease
____ 202. Which stimulation could Ashley, the young girl with Congenital Insensitivity to Pain with Anhidrosis
(CIPA), actually experience?
a. taking a warm bath c. stubbing her big toe
b. getting a hug from her parents d. getting stung by a bee
____ 203. The case of Ashley Blocker illustrates:
a. the potential for computers giving sight to the blind
b. how Meniere抯 disease affects the quality of life
c. the important function that pain plays in protecting us
d. the role that endorphins play in pain management
True/False
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
____ 1. Because of transduction, there is decreased responding in the sense organ when exposed to continuous
levels of stimulation.
____ 2. Sensations refer to the organization and interpretation of meaningful perceptual experiences.
____ 3. The process that refers to changing physical energy into electrical signals is called agnosia.
____ 4. Objects that you see are turned upside down on the retina.
____ 5. The pupil of the eye is really a circular muscle.
____ 6. Farsightedness is due to the eyeball being too short.
____ 7. The photoreceptors in your eye are called rods and cones.
____ 8. Cones are extremely light sensitive.
____ 9. The visual association areas respond to specific kinds of visual stimuli such as lines and shadows.
____ 10. The trichromatic theory of color vision asserts that there are three kinds of cones in the eye.
____ 11. The opponent-process theory says that color vision is the result of brain cells responding to two pairs of
color.
____ 12. The cochlea of the ear contains the receptors for hearing.
Name: ________________________ ID: A
21
____ 13. The rods and cones of the cochlea are stimulated by fluid resulting in nerve messages.
____ 14. High pitch sounds are created by high frequency waves.
____ 15. The semicircular canals provide the brain with information about the pitch of sound.
____ 16. Flavor is the result of taste and smell.
____ 17. Disgust as a facial expression is displayed differently throughout the world.
____ 18. Because of transduction, we stop smelling scents that we are exposed to repeatedly.
____ 19. Endorphins are produced in situations that involve fear, stress, or injury.
____ 20. The price of medicine does not affect its effectiveness.
____ 21. Conduction deafness is due to damage to the auditory nerve.
____ 22. Neural deafness can be treated with cochlear implants.
____ 23. Individuals with CIPA have difficulty regulating body temperature.
Short Answer
1. Describe the processes of transduction and adaptation. Include an example of each in your response.
2. Trace the path of light as it enters the eye. Your answer should include the major structures of the eye.
3. How do the trichromatic theory and opponent-process theory explain color vision?
4. How do we create perceptions of flavor?
5. Explain why we soon stop smelling scents if we are repeatedly exposed to them.
6. How would gate control theory explain this: Michelle has a bad headache. She starts watching an
engaging television show and she no longer notices the pain. The television show ends, and she starts
complaining about the pain.
7. Describe the role that endorphins and beliefs play in acupuncture.
8. What is pain? Give an example to illustrate how social, psychological, and emotional factors can
influence it.
9. Describe the difference between conduction deafness and neural deafness. In what way do the differences
have implications for treatment?
10. Why can the inability to feel pain be fatal?
ID: A
1
5
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Factual
2. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Factual
3. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
4. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Factual
5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Factual
6. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Factual
7. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Applied
8. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Applied
9. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Applied
10. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Applied
11. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Factual
12. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Factual
13. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Factual
14. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 93
OBJ: Introduction MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
15. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 94
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
16. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 94
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
17. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 94
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
18. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 94
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
19. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 94
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
20. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 94
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
21. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
22. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
ID: A
2
23. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
24. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
25. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
26. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
27. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
28. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
29. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
30. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
31. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
32. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 95
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
33. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
34. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
35. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
36. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
37. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
38. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
39. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
40. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
41. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
42. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
43. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
44. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
45. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
46. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
47. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
ID: A
3
48. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
49. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
50. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 96
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
51. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
52. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
53. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
54. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
55. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
56. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
57. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
58. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
59. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
60. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
61. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
62. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 97
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
63. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 98
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
64. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 98
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
65. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 98
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
66. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 98
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
67. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 98
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
68. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 98
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
69. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 98
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
70. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 98
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
71. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 98
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
72. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 99
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
ID: A
4
73. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 99
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
74. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 99
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
75. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 99
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
76. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 99
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
77. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 99
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
78. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 99
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Applied
79. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 99
OBJ: Vision MSC: TYPE: Factual
80. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 100
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
81. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 100
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Applied
82. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 100
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
83. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 100-101
OBJ: Ear: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
84. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 100
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
85. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 100
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
86. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 100
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
87. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 100
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
88. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 100
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Applied
89. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 100
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Applied
90. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 100
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Applied
91. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 100
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
92. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 101
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Applied
93. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 101
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
94. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 102
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
95. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 102
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
96. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 102
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
97. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 102
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
ID: A
5
98. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 102
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
99. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 102
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
100. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 102
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
101. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 102
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
102. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 103
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
103. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 103
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
104. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 103
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
105. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 103
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
106. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 103
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Applied
107. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 103
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
108. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 103
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
109. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 103
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
110. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 103
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Applied
111. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 103
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
112. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 104
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Applied
113. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 104
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
114. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 104
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
115. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 104
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
116. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 104
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
117. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 104
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
118. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 104
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
119. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 104
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Factual
120. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 104
OBJ: Audition MSC: TYPE: Applied
121. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 105
OBJ: Vestibular & Kinesthetic Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
122. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 105
OBJ: Vestibular & Kinesthetic Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
ID: A
6
123. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 105
OBJ: Vestibular & Kinesthetic Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
124. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 105
OBJ: Vestibular & Kinesthetic Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
125. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 105
OBJ: Vestibular & Kinesthetic Senses MSC: TYPE: Applied
126. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 105
OBJ: Vestibular & Kinesthetic Senses MSC: TYPE: Applied
127. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 105
OBJ: Vestibular & Kinesthetic Senses MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
128. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 105
OBJ: Vestibular & Kinesthetic Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
129. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
130. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
131. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Applied
132. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
133. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
134. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
135. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Applied
136. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
137. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
138. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
139. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Applied
140. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
141. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 106
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Applied
142. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 107
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Applied
143. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 107
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
144. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 107
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
145. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 107
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
146. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 107
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
147. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 107
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
ID: A
7
148. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 107
OBJ: Chemical Senses MSC: TYPE: Applied
149. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 108
OBJ: Touch MSC: TYPE: Factual
150. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 108
OBJ: Touch MSC: TYPE: Factual
151. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 108
OBJ: Touch MSC: TYPE: Factual
152. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 108
OBJ: Touch MSC: TYPE: Factual
153. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 108
OBJ: Touch MSC: TYPE: Applied
154. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 108
OBJ: Touch MSC: TYPE: Factual
155. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 108
OBJ: Touch MSC: TYPE: Applied
156. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 108
OBJ: Touch MSC: TYPE: Factual
157. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 110
OBJ: Cultural Diversity: Disgust MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
158. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 110
OBJ: Cultural Diversity: Disgust MSC: TYPE: Applied
159. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 110
OBJ: Cultural Diversity: Disgust MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
160. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 111
OBJ: Research Focus: Mind over Body? MSC: TYPE: Factual
161. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 111
OBJ: Research Focus: Mind over Body? MSC: TYPE: Factual
162. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 111
OBJ: Research Focus: Mind over Body? MSC: TYPE: Factual
163. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 111
OBJ: Research Focus: Mind over Body? MSC: TYPE: Factual
164. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 111
OBJ: Research Focus: Mind over Body? MSC: TYPE: Factual
165. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 111
OBJ: Research Focus: Mind over Body? MSC: TYPE: Applied
166. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 111
OBJ: Research Focus: Mind over Body? MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
167. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 111
OBJ: Research Focus: Mind over Body? MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
168. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 112
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
169. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 112
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
170. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 112
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
171. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 112
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
172. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 112
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Applied
ID: A
8
173. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 112
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
174. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 112
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
175. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 112
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
176. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 112
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Applied
177. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Applied
178. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
179. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
180. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
181. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
182. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Applied
183. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Applied
184. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
185. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
186. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Applied
187. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
188. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
189. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
190. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 113
OBJ: Pain MSC: TYPE: Factual
191. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 114
OBJ: Application: Artificial Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
192. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 114
OBJ: Application: Artificial Senses MSC: TYPE: Applied
193. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 115
OBJ: Application: Artificial Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
194. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 115
OBJ: Application: Artificial Senses MSC: TYPE: Applied
195. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 115
OBJ: Application: Artificial Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
196. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 115
OBJ: Application: Artificial Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
197. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 115
OBJ: Application: Artificial Senses MSC: TYPE: Applied
ID: A
9
198. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 115
OBJ: Application: Artificial Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
199. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 115
OBJ: Application: Artificial Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
200. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 115
OBJ: Application: Artificial Senses MSC: TYPE: Factual
201. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult REF: p. 116
OBJ: Critical Thinking MSC: TYPE: Factual
202. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy REF: p. 116
OBJ: Critical Thinking MSC: TYPE: Factual
203. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate REF: p. 116
OBJ: Critical Thinking MSC: TYPE: Conceptual
TRUE/FALSE
1. ANS: F PTS: 1
2. ANS: F PTS: 1
3. ANS: F PTS: 1
4. ANS: T PTS: 1
5. ANS: F PTS: 1
6. ANS: T PTS: 1
7. ANS: T PTS: 1
8. ANS: F PTS: 1
9. ANS: F PTS: 1
10. ANS: T PTS: 1
11. ANS: T PTS: 1
12. ANS: T PTS: 1
13. ANS: F PTS: 1
14. ANS: T PTS: 1
15. ANS: F PTS: 1
16. ANS: T PTS: 1
17. ANS: F PTS: 1
18. ANS: F PTS: 1
19. ANS: T PTS: 1
20. ANS: F PTS: 1
21. ANS: F PTS: 1
22. ANS: T PTS: 1
23. ANS: T PTS: 1
SHORT ANSWER
1. ANS:
Answer not provided.
PTS: 1
2. ANS:
Answer not provided.
PTS: 1
ID: A
10
3. ANS:
Answer not provided.
PTS: 1
4. ANS:
Answer not provided.
PTS: 1
5. ANS:
Answer not provided.
PTS: 1
6. ANS:
Answer not provided.
PTS: 1
7. ANS:
Answer not provided.
PTS: 1
8. ANS:
Answer not provided.
PTS: 1
9. ANS:
Answer not provided.
PTS: 1
10. ANS:
Answer not provided.
PTS: 1