Law for Business 12th Edition By A. James Barnes - Test Bank

Law for Business 12th Edition By A. James Barnes - Test Bank   Instant Download - Complete Test Bank With Answers     Sample Questions Are Posted Below   Chapter 05 Crimes   True / False Questions 1. Crimes are private wrongs, pursued by private attorneys. True    False   2. Felonies are lesser crimes such as traffic …

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Law for Business 12th Edition By A. James Barnes – Test Bank

 

Instant Download – Complete Test Bank With Answers

 

 

Sample Questions Are Posted Below

 

Chapter 05

Crimes

 

True / False Questions

1. Crimes are private wrongs, pursued by private attorneys.

True    False

 

2. Felonies are lesser crimes such as traffic offenses or disorderly conduct that are punishable by fines or confinement in a city or county jail.

True    False

 

3. Ex post facto laws are statutes that would punish someone for an act that was considered criminal when the act was committed.

True    False

 

4. The idea behind mens rea is that criminal law generally seeks to punish conscious and the unintended wrongdoers in the same vein.

True    False

 

5. Voluntary intoxication is a complete defense to a crime.

True    False

 

6. The legal system of the United States allows nontestimonial evidence such as fingerprints, hair samples, and bodily fluids to be obtained through compulsion.

True    False

 

7. Under the doctrine of double jeopardy, acquitted defendants can be tried twice for the same crime.

True    False

 

8. Defendants in criminal cases have the right to remain silent and cannot be compelled to testify against themselves.

True    False

 

9. The U.S.A. PATRIOT Act restricts law enforcement from using surveillance techniques with increased judicial and congressional oversight.

True    False

 

10. A corporate officer may sometimes be found liable even when the officer had no actual knowledge of, or control over, the activities in question.

True    False

 

11. Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, the chief executive officer and chief financial officer must certify reports submitted to the Securities and Exchange Commission.

True    False

 

12. Acquiring or maintaining an interest in an enterprise through a pattern of racketeering activity is prohibited under RICO.

True    False

 

13. The treble damages provision is applicable to individuals injured by violations of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002.

True    False

 

14. Under the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, it is legal for any American firm to offer gifts of anything of value to foreign officials.

True    False

 

15. Under the Electronic Communications Privacy Act, an electronic communication provider may disclose the contents of an electronic communication if the disclosure was made as part of government-authorized surveillance.

True    False

 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

16. Disenfranchisement refers to the loss of the right to vote:

A. due to the social stigma accompanying a criminal conviction.

 

B. as a result of a felony charge.

 

C. that might result from the conviction of a felony.

 

D. as a result of misdemeanor.

 

17. For a person to be convicted of criminal behavior, which of the following statements should be true?

A. The state must demonstrate a prior statutory prohibition of the act.

 

B. It should be proved that the person was insane at the time of commitment of the criminal act.

 

C. The criminal defendants should be presumed guilty.

 

D. The person should commit a criminal act before a statute prohibiting the act is brought into effect.

 

18. Mens rea refers to _____.

A. misdemeanors

 

B. social condemnation

 

C. insanity

 

D. criminal intent

 

19. Alex harbors a deep hatred for Malaika because she publicly humiliated him. Shane is Malaika’s business partner who plots to acquire her shares and knows about Alex’s resentment toward Malaika. Shane takes Alex on a drinking spree at a local bar where he provokes Alex against Malaika. In a fit of rage, Alex leaves the bar and murders Malaika at her residence. From this scenario, we can conclude that the court would most likely hold Alex:

A. incapable of premeditation and give him bail.

 

B. capable of premeditation and punish him for first-degree murder.

 

C. incapable of premeditation and punish him for second-degree murder.

 

D. capable of premeditation and give him the death penalty.

 

20. According to the concept of _____, a 13-year-old accused of shoplifting cannot be convicted.

A. intoxication

 

B. insanity

 

C. premeditation

 

D. infancy

 

21. A young American woman named Monica killed her illegitimate child and buried the body in her backyard. Many years later, Monica called Claudio, the local policeman, and told him the entire story over the telephone before he could utter a single word. She then told him that voices from her backyard told her to confess to the crime. Monica told the police where to dig, and they unearthed a metal box containing the skeletal remains of a baby in her yard. Which of the following statements would be true of this scenario?

A. The remains cannot be used as evidence against Monica because this would violate her Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination.

 

B. Insanity on the part of a criminal defendant can affect a criminal trial.

 

C. The remains cannot be used as evidence against Monica because Claudio did not inform her of her right to remain silent before she told him her story.

 

D. Juries are often welcoming toward insanity pleas, because they fear that innocent defendants might be punished.

 

22. In which of the following ways can insanity on the part of a criminal defendant affect a criminal trial?

A. The trial may be delayed until the defendant regains sanity.

 

B. A defendant who becomes insane before sentencing can be sentenced.

 

C. Insanity at the time of the criminal act will not absolve the defendant of criminal liability.

 

D. The court will be forced to dismiss the case.

 

23. Under the Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, when assessing whether a governmental action has infringed on an individual’s rights, the court:

A. will always grant the government the ability to do whatever it deems necessary.

 

B. must balance the governmental need against the rights of the individual.

 

C. will always rule in favor of individual rights over that of the government.

 

D. must balance both, but ultimately grant the government the ability to do whatever it deems necessary.

 

24. The _____ to the U.S. Constitution protects individuals from arbitrary and unreasonable governmental intrusion on the right to privacy.

A. Fifth Amendment

 

B. Eighth Amendment

 

C. Fourth Amendment

 

D. Sixth Amendment

 

25. Illegally gained evidence, such as evidence resulting from “unreasonable searches and seizures,” cannot be used in criminal prosecutions. This is a safeguard for criminal defendants under:

A. the Miranda warning.

 

B. the exclusionary rule.

 

C. the right of confrontation.

 

D. double jeopardy.

 

26. Which of the following is included in the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution?

A. Prohibition against double jeopardy

 

B. Prohibition against excessive bail or fines

 

C. The exclusionary rule

 

D. The right of confrontation

 

27. Which of the following statements is true of the Miranda warning?

A. It is a protection offered to the U.S. citizens under the Eighth Amendment.

 

B. It gives defendants the right to a speedy, public trial by a jury of their peers.

 

C. It allows persons accused of crimes the right to confront and cross-examine their accusers.

 

D. It gives people charged with a criminal offence the right to be represented by effective counsels.

 

28. The prohibition against excessive bail or fines can be found in the _____ to the U.S. Constitution.

A. Sixth Amendment

 

B. Fourth Amendment

 

C. Fifth Amendment

 

D. Eighth Amendment

 

29. One of the major criticisms against the U.S.A. PATRIOT Act is that it:

A. increases judicial and congressional oversight on the use of increased surveillance techniques.

 

B. compromises the public’s Fourth Amendment rights.

 

C. tips the balance too heavily in the individual’s favor.

 

D. decreases the information-sharing power between investigative agencies.

 

30. What is a white-collar crime?

A. It is a nonviolent crime committed by any individual against businesspersons and organizations.

 

B. It is a violent terrorism-related crime that poses significant threat to the general public.

 

C. It is a nonviolent crime committed by businesspersons and organizations.

 

D. It is a violent crime committed by any person belonging to a lower social class.

 

31. The responsible corporate officer doctrine:

A. directs that corporate officials and agents may be held liable for crimes they fail to prevent by neglecting to control the misconduct of those subject to their control.

 

B. states that officials cannot be tried for homicide and related crimes.

 

C. states that corporate officials have no liability if they have no knowledge of the activities in question.

 

D. directs that corporate officials may be tried only for crimes that they personally commit.

 

32. Which of the following statements is true about the Federal Sentencing Guidelines?

A. They are designed to establish consistent sentences for homicides only.

 

B. They require judges to arrive at a sentence by using a formula based on the seriousness and circumstances of the crime.

 

C. They specifically mandate lenient penalties and faster trials for corporations dealing with white-collar crimes.

 

D. They mandate a minimum one-month prison term for tax frauds.

 

33. The _____ includes civil, criminal, and accounting reforms that drastically expand the accountability demanded of corporate officers and directors.

A. Electronic Communications Privacy Act

 

B. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act

 

C. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act

 

D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

 

34. Which of the following is true under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002?

A. To defraud shareholders of a publicly traded company is considered a misdemeanor.

 

B. It covers civil and criminal reforms that expand the accountability of corporate officers but does not include accounting reforms.

 

C. It states that there should be procedures to ensure legal protection for whistleblowers.

 

D. It states that chief executive officers and chief financial officers cannot be held liable for any misconduct.

 

35. Meera Ganguly is the chief executive officer, and Todd Bradley is the chief financial officer of Maxwell Inc. Both unknowingly signed the financial report for the year 2006-07, which was later found to be fraudulent and misleading. Given this scenario, which of the following is true of the CEO and the CFO of Maxwell Inc.?

A. Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, both of them must reimburse the company.

 

B. Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, only the CEO will be liable for punishment.

 

C. Under RICO, both of them are required to reimburse the company.

 

D. Under RICO, only the CFO will be liable for punishment.

 

36. Which of the following statements is true of the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO)?

A. It prohibits using income derived from racketeering activity to acquire an interest in an enterprise.

 

B. Companies involved in bribery do not face civil liability.

 

C. Participating in an enterprise through a pattern of racketeering activity is permissible.

 

D. To be charged for racketeering, the prosecution must prove, at a minimum, the commission of a single offense within a 10-year period.

 

37. Under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO), _____ is considered a racketeering activity.

A. arson

 

B. homicide

 

C. extortion

 

D. larceny

 

38. Under the mandates of the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO), an individual injured by the racketeering activity of a company can:

A. claim three times the damage plus attorneys’ fees.

 

B. claim four times the damage plus attorneys’ fees.

 

C. claim only up to two times the damage plus attorneys’ fees.

 

D. recover the basic amount lost plus attorneys’ fees.

 

39. Which of the following is an example of cooperative antibribery efforts aimed at combating corruption in international business dealings?

A. The ECPA

 

B. The CFAA

 

C. The IACAC

 

D. The CSEA

 

40. Both federal and state laws spell out the specifics of cybercrime. Which of the following statements is true of these laws?

A. Only an individual may face liability based on the use of electronic communication; corporations are out of their purview.

 

B. Altering data stored in another person’s computer is not considered illegal.

 

C. A corporation is not liable for the online activities of its employees.

 

D. Accessing the services of a commercial service provider without paying fees is a crime.

 

41. Which of the following acts protects against unauthorized interception of electronic communications?

A. The Wiretap Act

 

B. The Stored Communication Act

 

C. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act

 

D. The Cyber Security Enhancement Act

 

42. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act:

A. includes only criminal penalties.

 

B. prohibits interference with computers used by the government or financial institutions.

 

C. prohibits an authorized person from unknowingly transmitting a code to a computer used in interstate commerce.

 

D. enables providers to disclose the contents of electronic communication to intelligence officials under any circumstance.

 

43. Which of the following statements is true about the Cyber Security Enhancement Act of 2002 (CSEA)?

A. It prohibits acts of acquiring or maintaining an interest in an enterprise through racketeering activity.

 

B. It authorizes death penalty for individuals who knowingly or recklessly commit a computer crime specifically in foreign commerce.

 

C. It authorizes a 10-year sentence for individuals who recklessly commit a computer crime that results in serious bodily injury.

 

D. It allows an ISP to disclose private information to a government agent if the ISP believes that the information concerns a serious crime.

 

44. The Controlling the Assault of Non-Solicited Pornography and Marketing Act (CAN-SPAM):

A. requires that all e-mail messages be labeled.

 

B. requires that unsolicited commercial e-mail include opt-out instructions.

 

C. prohibits interference with computers used by the government or financial institutions.

 

D. allows an ISP to disclose private information to a government agent if the provider believes that the information concerns a serious crime.

 

45. Drafted under U.S. influence, the Council of Europe’s “Convention on Cybercrime” obligates participating countries to:

A. disclose private information to government agents.

 

B. create a “do-not-e-mail” registry.

 

C. outlaw commercial copyright infringement.

 

D. send out unsolicited commercial e-mails.

 

 

Short Answer Questions

46. Define crimes. Differentiate between felonies and misdemeanors, mentioning the penalties by which each is punishable.

 

 

 

 

47. In the United States, what are the essential elements that must be shown by the state to obtain a criminal conviction?

 

 

 

 

48. Why does the legal system of the United States have safeguards to protect the accused? Name a few of these safeguards.

 

 

 

 

49. Explain two laws governing computer privacy in the United States.

 

 

 

 

50. If a country decides to join the Council of Europe’s “Convention on Cybercrime,” what does the country need to do as a part of this convention?

 

 

 

 

Chapter 05 Crimes Answer Key

 

True / False Questions

1.
(p. 91)
Crimes are private wrongs, pursued by private attorneys.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the elements essential for a criminal conviction.
Topic: The Nature of Crimes
 

 

2.
(p. 91)
Felonies are lesser crimes such as traffic offenses or disorderly conduct that are punishable by fines or confinement in a city or county jail.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the elements essential for a criminal conviction.
Topic: The Nature of Crimes
 

 

3.
(p. 91)
Ex post facto laws are statutes that would punish someone for an act that was considered criminal when the act was committed.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the elements essential for a criminal conviction.
Topic: The Essentials of Crime
 

 

4.
(p. 93)
The idea behind mens rea is that criminal law generally seeks to punish conscious and the unintended wrongdoers in the same vein.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Understand the various types of capacity; particularly the insanity and irresistible impulse defenses.
Topic: The Essentials of Crime
 

 

5.
(p. 93)
Voluntary intoxication is a complete defense to a crime.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Understand the various types of capacity; particularly the insanity and irresistible impulse defenses.
Topic: The Essentials of Crime
 

 

6.
(p. 94)
The legal system of the United States allows nontestimonial evidence such as fingerprints, hair samples, and bodily fluids to be obtained through compulsion.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

7.
(p. 95)
Under the doctrine of double jeopardy, acquitted defendants can be tried twice for the same crime.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

8.
(p. 95)
Defendants in criminal cases have the right to remain silent and cannot be compelled to testify against themselves.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

9.
(p. 95)
The U.S.A. PATRIOT Act restricts law enforcement from using surveillance techniques with increased judicial and congressional oversight.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

10.
(p. 96)
A corporate officer may sometimes be found liable even when the officer had no actual knowledge of, or control over, the activities in question.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

11.
(p. 97)
Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, the chief executive officer and chief financial officer must certify reports submitted to the Securities and Exchange Commission.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Describe the types of violations encompassed by Sarbanes-Oxley; and who has liability under the law.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

12.
(p. 98)
Acquiring or maintaining an interest in an enterprise through a pattern of racketeering activity is prohibited under RICO.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

13.
(p. 98)
The treble damages provision is applicable to individuals injured by violations of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

14.
(p. 99)
Under the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act, it is legal for any American firm to offer gifts of anything of value to foreign officials.

FALSE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

15.
(p. 100-101)
Under the Electronic Communications Privacy Act, an electronic communication provider may disclose the contents of an electronic communication if the disclosure was made as part of government-authorized surveillance.

TRUE

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Cybercrime
 

 

Multiple Choice Questions

16.
(p. 91)
Disenfranchisement refers to the loss of the right to vote:

A. due to the social stigma accompanying a criminal conviction.

 

B. as a result of a felony charge.

 

C. that might result from the conviction of a felony.

 

D. as a result of misdemeanor.

Felonies are serious offenses such as murder, rape, and arson that are generally punishable by confinement in a penitentiary for substantial periods of time. Conviction of a felony may, in some cases, result in disenfranchisement (loss of the right to vote).

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the elements essential for a criminal conviction.
Topic: The Nature of Crimes
 

 

17.
(p. 91)
For a person to be convicted of criminal behavior, which of the following statements should be true?

A. The state must demonstrate a prior statutory prohibition of the act.

 

B. It should be proved that the person was insane at the time of commitment of the criminal act.

 

C. The criminal defendants should be presumed guilty.

 

D. The person should commit a criminal act before a statute prohibiting the act is brought into effect.

In order for a person to be convicted of criminal behavior, the state must (1) demonstrate a prior statutory prohibition of the act, (2) prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant committed every element of the criminal offense prohibited by the statute, and (3) prove that the defendant had the capacity to form a criminal intent.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the elements essential for a criminal conviction.
Topic: The Essentials of Crime
 

 

18.
(p. 93)
Mens rea refers to _____.

A. misdemeanors

 

B. social condemnation

 

C. insanity

 

D. criminal intent

Mens rea, or criminal intent, is an element of most serious crimes. The basic idea behind requiring intent is that the criminal law generally seeks to punish conscious wrongdoers.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Understand the various types of capacity; particularly the insanity and irresistible impulse defenses.
Topic: The Essentials of Crime
 

 

19.
(p. 93)
Alex harbors a deep hatred for Malaika because she publicly humiliated him. Shane is Malaika’s business partner who plots to acquire her shares and knows about Alex’s resentment toward Malaika. Shane takes Alex on a drinking spree at a local bar where he provokes Alex against Malaika. In a fit of rage, Alex leaves the bar and murders Malaika at her residence. From this scenario, we can conclude that the court would most likely hold Alex:

A. incapable of premeditation and give him bail.

 

B. capable of premeditation and punish him for first-degree murder.

 

C. incapable of premeditation and punish him for second-degree murder.

 

D. capable of premeditation and give him the death penalty.

According to the given scenario, the court will most likely hold Alex incapable of forming intent and punish him for second-degree murder. Voluntary intoxication is generally not a complete defense to criminal liability. It can, in some cases, diminish the extent of a defendant’s liability if it prevents the formation of a specific criminal intent. For example, many first-degree murder statutes require proof of premeditation, a conscious decision to kill. A highly intoxicated defendant may not be capable of premeditation and may therefore be convicted of only second-degree murder, which does not generally require premeditation.

 

AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-02 Understand the various types of capacity; particularly the insanity and irresistible impulse defenses.
Topic: The Essentials of Crime
 

 

20.
(p. 93)
According to the concept of _____, a 13-year-old accused of shoplifting cannot be convicted.

A. intoxication

 

B. insanity

 

C. premeditation

 

D. infancy

In common law, children under the age of 7 were incapable of forming a criminal intent, children between the ages of 7 and 14 were presumed incapable, and children between the ages of 14 and 21 were presumed capable. This is the concept of infancy. The focus of these laws is rehabilitation rather than capacity, and they provide for special juvenile court systems and separate detention facilities.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-02 Understand the various types of capacity; particularly the insanity and irresistible impulse defenses.
Topic: The Essentials of Crime
 

 

21.
(p. 93)
A young American woman named Monica killed her illegitimate child and buried the body in her backyard. Many years later, Monica called Claudio, the local policeman, and told him the entire story over the telephone before he could utter a single word. She then told him that voices from her backyard told her to confess to the crime. Monica told the police where to dig, and they unearthed a metal box containing the skeletal remains of a baby in her yard. Which of the following statements would be true of this scenario?

A. The remains cannot be used as evidence against Monica because this would violate her Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination.

 

B. Insanity on the part of a criminal defendant can affect a criminal trial.

 

C. The remains cannot be used as evidence against Monica because Claudio did not inform her of her right to remain silent before she told him her story.

 

D. Juries are often welcoming toward insanity pleas, because they fear that innocent defendants might be punished.

Insanity on the part of a criminal defendant can affect a criminal trial in three ways. If the accused is incapable of assisting in the defense of the case, trial may be delayed until the accused regains sanity. An accused who becomes insane after trial but before sentencing is not sentenced until sanity has been regained. Insanity at the time the criminal act was committed absolves the defendant of criminal liability.

 

AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-02 Understand the various types of capacity; particularly the insanity and irresistible impulse defenses.
Topic: The Essentials of Crime
 

 

22.
(p. 93)
In which of the following ways can insanity on the part of a criminal defendant affect a criminal trial?

A. The trial may be delayed until the defendant regains sanity.

 

B. A defendant who becomes insane before sentencing can be sentenced.

 

C. Insanity at the time of the criminal act will not absolve the defendant of criminal liability.

 

D. The court will be forced to dismiss the case.

Insanity on the part of a criminal defendant can affect a criminal trial in three ways. If the accused is incapable of assisting in the defense of the case, trial may be delayed until the accused regains sanity. An accused who becomes insane after trial but before sentencing is not sentenced until sanity has been regained. Insanity at the time the criminal act was committed absolves the defendant of criminal liability.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-02 Understand the various types of capacity; particularly the insanity and irresistible impulse defenses.
Topic: The Essentials of Crime
 

 

23.
(p. 94)
Under the Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution, when assessing whether a governmental action has infringed on an individual’s rights, the court:

A. will always grant the government the ability to do whatever it deems necessary.

 

B. must balance the governmental need against the rights of the individual.

 

C. will always rule in favor of individual rights over that of the government.

 

D. must balance both, but ultimately grant the government the ability to do whatever it deems necessary.

The safeguards of the Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution are designed to protect individuals from arbitrary and unreasonable governmental intrusion on their right to privacy. In determining whether a governmental action has unconstitutionally infringed on an individual’s right, the court must balance the governmental need to do the action against the intrusion on the individual’s rights.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

24.
(p. 95)
The _____ to the U.S. Constitution protects individuals from arbitrary and unreasonable governmental intrusion on the right to privacy.

A. Fifth Amendment

 

B. Eighth Amendment

 

C. Fourth Amendment

 

D. Sixth Amendment

The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution is designed to protect individuals from arbitrary and unreasonable governmental intrusion on their right to privacy. For example, a warrant for a search or arrest cannot be issued without probable cause.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

25.
(p. 95)
Illegally gained evidence, such as evidence resulting from “unreasonable searches and seizures,” cannot be used in criminal prosecutions. This is a safeguard for criminal defendants under:

A. the Miranda warning.

 

B. the exclusionary rule.

 

C. the right of confrontation.

 

D. double jeopardy.

One of the provisions of the Fourth Amendment is the exclusionary rule. Under this rule, illegally gained evidence (evidence resulting from “unreasonable searches and seizures” prohibited by the Fourth Amendment) cannot be used in criminal prosecutions.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

26.
(p. 95)
Which of the following is included in the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution?

A. Prohibition against double jeopardy

 

B. Prohibition against excessive bail or fines

 

C. The exclusionary rule

 

D. The right of confrontation

One of the provisions of the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution is prohibition against double jeopardy. Acquitted defendants cannot be tried twice for the same crime.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

27.
(p. 95)
Which of the following statements is true of the Miranda warning?

A. It is a protection offered to the U.S. citizens under the Eighth Amendment.

 

B. It gives defendants the right to a speedy, public trial by a jury of their peers.

 

C. It allows persons accused of crimes the right to confront and cross-examine their accusers.

 

D. It gives people charged with a criminal offence the right to be represented by effective counsels.

Part of the Miranda warning says that persons charged with crimes have a right to be represented by effective counsel if imprisonment can result from conviction.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

28.
(p. 95)
The prohibition against excessive bail or fines can be found in the _____ to the U.S. Constitution.

A. Sixth Amendment

 

B. Fourth Amendment

 

C. Fifth Amendment

 

D. Eighth Amendment

The Eighth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution protects criminal defendants against excessive bail or fines and cruel and unusual punishment.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

29.
(p. 95)
One of the major criticisms against the U.S.A. PATRIOT Act is that it:

A. increases judicial and congressional oversight on the use of increased surveillance techniques.

 

B. compromises the public’s Fourth Amendment rights.

 

C. tips the balance too heavily in the individual’s favor.

 

D. decreases the information-sharing power between investigative agencies.

The Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism Act of 2001 (U.S.A. PATRIOT Act) allows law enforcement to use increased surveillance techniques, including the ability to conduct covert searches, obtain sensitive personal records, and track e-mail and Internet usage with minimal judicial and congressional oversight. Some critics of the law worry that the U.S.A. PATRIOT Act compromises the public’s Fourth Amendment rights. While the safeguarding of the public against terrorism is important, they contend that the law tips the balance too heavily in the government’s favor.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

30.
(p. 96)
What is a white-collar crime?

A. It is a nonviolent crime committed by any individual against businesspersons and organizations.

 

B. It is a violent terrorism-related crime that poses significant threat to the general public.

 

C. It is a nonviolent crime committed by businesspersons and organizations.

 

D. It is a violent crime committed by any person belonging to a lower social class.

White-collar crime is the term used to describe various nonviolent criminal offenses committed by businesspersons and organizations. The focus of this trend is on business-related acts that primarily harm people outside the corporation. Such crime costs the public billions of dollars a year.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

31.
(p. 96)
The responsible corporate officer doctrine:

A. directs that corporate officials and agents may be held liable for crimes they fail to prevent by neglecting to control the misconduct of those subject to their control.

 

B. states that officials cannot be tried for homicide and related crimes.

 

C. states that corporate officials have no liability if they have no knowledge of the activities in question.

 

D. directs that corporate officials may be tried only for crimes that they personally commit.

Today, corporate officials and agents may be held liable for crimes that they personally commit, for crimes they aid or abet, and for crimes they fail to prevent by neglecting to control the misconduct of those subject to their control. The last category of liability is sometimes known as the responsible corporate officer doctrine.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

32.
(p. 97)
Which of the following statements is true about the Federal Sentencing Guidelines?

A. They are designed to establish consistent sentences for homicides only.

 

B. They require judges to arrive at a sentence by using a formula based on the seriousness and circumstances of the crime.

 

C. They specifically mandate lenient penalties and faster trials for corporations dealing with white-collar crimes.

 

D. They mandate a minimum one-month prison term for tax frauds.

The Federal Sentencing Guidelines are designed to establish consistent sentences for federal crimes. In order to arrive at the sentence, judges are supposed to use a formula based on issues such as the seriousness of the crime, the defendant’s criminal record, and the circumstances of the crime.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

33.
(p. 97)
The _____ includes civil, criminal, and accounting reforms that drastically expand the accountability demanded of corporate officers and directors.

A. Electronic Communications Privacy Act

 

B. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act

 

C. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act

 

D. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 includes civil, criminal, and accounting reforms that drastically expand the accountability demanded of corporate officers and directors. Sarbanes-Oxley requires executives to pay close attention to the “quality of their companies’ financial reporting” and requires them to take steps to discover deficiencies in reporting systems and make necessary changes.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Describe the types of violations encompassed by Sarbanes-Oxley; and who has liability under the law.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

34.
(p. 97)
Which of the following is true under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002?

A. To defraud shareholders of a publicly traded company is considered a misdemeanor.

 

B. It covers civil and criminal reforms that expand the accountability of corporate officers but does not include accounting reforms.

 

C. It states that there should be procedures to ensure legal protection for whistleblowers.

 

D. It states that chief executive officers and chief financial officers cannot be held liable for any misconduct.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 includes civil, criminal, and accounting reforms that drastically expand the accountability demanded of corporate officers and directors. Under the law, procedures for whistleblowing, including anonymous reporting, must be established, and employees who “blow the whistle” on their employers for fraud are offered legal protection.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-04 Describe the types of violations encompassed by Sarbanes-Oxley; and who has liability under the law.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

35.
(p. 97)
Meera Ganguly is the chief executive officer, and Todd Bradley is the chief financial officer of Maxwell Inc. Both unknowingly signed the financial report for the year 2006-07, which was later found to be fraudulent and misleading. Given this scenario, which of the following is true of the CEO and the CFO of Maxwell Inc.?

A. Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, both of them must reimburse the company.

 

B. Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, only the CEO will be liable for punishment.

 

C. Under RICO, both of them are required to reimburse the company.

 

D. Under RICO, only the CFO will be liable for punishment.

Under the Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002, chief executive officers (CEOs) and chief financial officers (CFOs) must reimburse the company for any bonuses or other incentive compensation if any financial reporting is misleading due to misconduct, even if the misconduct was not attributable to the CEO or CFO.

 

AACSB: Reflective Thinking
Blooms: Apply
Difficulty: 3 Hard
Learning Objective: 05-04 Describe the types of violations encompassed by Sarbanes-Oxley; and who has liability under the law.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

36.
(p. 98)
Which of the following statements is true of the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO)?

A. It prohibits using income derived from racketeering activity to acquire an interest in an enterprise.

 

B. Companies involved in bribery do not face civil liability.

 

C. Participating in an enterprise through a pattern of racketeering activity is permissible.

 

D. To be charged for racketeering, the prosecution must prove, at a minimum, the commission of a single offense within a 10-year period.

The Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO) was passed by Congress as part of the Organized Crime Control Act of 1970 and, as the name suggests, was designed to stop the entry of organized crime into legitimate business enterprises. RICO prohibits (1) using income derived from “a pattern of racketeering activity” to acquire an interest in an enterprise, (2) acquiring or maintaining an interest in an enterprise through a pattern of racketeering activity, (3) conducting or participating in the affairs of an enterprise through a pattern of racketeering activity, or (4) conspiring to do the preceding.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

37.
(p. 98)
Under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO), _____ is considered a racketeering activity.

A. arson

 

B. homicide

 

C. extortion

 

D. larceny

The Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO) was passed by Congress as part of the Organized Crime Control Act of 1970 and, as the name suggests, was designed to stop the entry of organized crime into legitimate business enterprises. RICO prohibits racketeering activity, which includes the commission of any of over 30 federal or state crimes that include bribery; mail, wire, and securities fraud; and extortion.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

38.
(p. 98)
Under the mandates of the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO), an individual injured by the racketeering activity of a company can:

A. claim three times the damage plus attorneys’ fees.

 

B. claim four times the damage plus attorneys’ fees.

 

C. claim only up to two times the damage plus attorneys’ fees.

 

D. recover the basic amount lost plus attorneys’ fees.

Companies also face civil liability under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act (RICO). The government can seek civil penalties, and individuals injured by RICO violations can recover treble damages (three times their actual loss) plus attorneys’ fees.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

39.
(p. 100)
Which of the following is an example of cooperative antibribery efforts aimed at combating corruption in international business dealings?

A. The ECPA

 

B. The CFAA

 

C. The IACAC

 

D. The CSEA

In 2000, the United States ratified the Inter-American Convention Against Corruption (IACAC). The IACAC was initiated by the Organization for American States (OAS) and criminalizes transnational bribery in the Western Hemisphere. The Convention requires that all 35 participating nations make it a crime to bribe foreign officials, designate appropriate punishments for violations, and agree to extradite those charged with bribery.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Crime and People in Business
 

 

40.
(p. 100)
Both federal and state laws spell out the specifics of cybercrime. Which of the following statements is true of these laws?

A. Only an individual may face liability based on the use of electronic communication; corporations are out of their purview.

 

B. Altering data stored in another person’s computer is not considered illegal.

 

C. A corporation is not liable for the online activities of its employees.

 

D. Accessing the services of a commercial service provider without paying fees is a crime.

Both federal and state laws spell out the specifics of computer crime. It is a crime to access or use a computer without authorization. It also is a crime for people to access the services of commercial service providers without paying their fees.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Cybercrime
 

 

41.
(p. 100)
Which of the following acts protects against unauthorized interception of electronic communications?

A. The Wiretap Act

 

B. The Stored Communication Act

 

C. The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act

 

D. The Cyber Security Enhancement Act

The Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA) broadly imposes privacy obligations on those who process and handle electronic communications, as well as on those who intercept such messages. The ECPA contains two major provisions: (1) its Wiretap Act protects against unauthorized interception of electronic communications and (2) its Stored Communication Act protects against unauthorized access and disclosure of electronic communication while it is in electronic storage.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Cybercrime
 

 

42.
(p. 101)
The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act:

A. includes only criminal penalties.

 

B. prohibits interference with computers used by the government or financial institutions.

 

C. prohibits an authorized person from unknowingly transmitting a code to a computer used in interstate commerce.

 

D. enables providers to disclose the contents of electronic communication to intelligence officials under any circumstance.

The Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA) civilly and criminally prohibits certain access to computers. Specifically, it bars a person without authorization from knowingly transmitting a program, information, code, or command with the intent of causing damage to a computer that is used in interstate or foreign commerce or communications. Other provisions in the statute prohibit interference with computers used by, or for the benefit of, the government or financial institutions.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Cybercrime
 

 

43.
(p. 102)
Which of the following statements is true about the Cyber Security Enhancement Act of 2002 (CSEA)?

A. It prohibits acts of acquiring or maintaining an interest in an enterprise through racketeering activity.

 

B. It authorizes death penalty for individuals who knowingly or recklessly commit a computer crime specifically in foreign commerce.

 

C. It authorizes a 10-year sentence for individuals who recklessly commit a computer crime that results in serious bodily injury.

 

D. It allows an ISP to disclose private information to a government agent if the ISP believes that the information concerns a serious crime.

Enacted in response to the events of September 11, 2001, the Cyber Security Enhancement Act of 2002 (CSEA) and the Uniting and Strengthening America by Providing Appropriate Tools Required to Intercept and Obstruct Terrorism Act of 2001 (U.S.A. PATRIOT Act) make it easier for the government to collect personal electronic information and substantially stiffen the penalties for computer criminals. The CSEA reduces the amount of privacy in stored communication by allowing an Internet service provider (ISP) to disclose private information to a government agent, not just law enforcement officials, if the ISP has a “good faith” belief that the information concerns a serious crime.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Cybercrime
 

 

44.
(p. 102)
The Controlling the Assault of Non-Solicited Pornography and Marketing Act (CAN-SPAM):

A. requires that all e-mail messages be labeled.

 

B. requires that unsolicited commercial e-mail include opt-out instructions.

 

C. prohibits interference with computers used by the government or financial institutions.

 

D. allows an ISP to disclose private information to a government agent if the provider believes that the information concerns a serious crime.

The Controlling the Assault of Non-Solicited Pornography and Marketing Act (CAN-SPAM) took effect on January 1, 2004, and attempts to address the glut of “junk e-mail” commonly known as “spam.” The statute requires that unsolicited commercial e-mail messages be labeled and include opt-out instructions and the senders’ physical address.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Cybercrime
 

 

45.
(p. 102)
Drafted under U.S. influence, the Council of Europe’s “Convention on Cybercrime” obligates participating countries to:

A. disclose private information to government agents.

 

B. create a “do-not-e-mail” registry.

 

C. outlaw commercial copyright infringement.

 

D. send out unsolicited commercial e-mails.

The global nature of computer systems has led to an international effort to fight computer-related crime. Drafted under U.S. influence, the Council of Europe’s “Convention on Cybercrime” aims to harmonize computer crime laws around the world by obliging participating countries to outlaw computer intrusion, child pornography, commercial copyright infringement, and online fraud.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Cybercrime
 

 

Short Answer Questions

46.
(p. 91)
Define crimes. Differentiate between felonies and misdemeanors, mentioning the penalties by which each is punishable.

Crimes are public wrongs—acts prohibited by the state or federal government. Criminal prosecutions are brought by the prosecutor in the name of the government. Those who are convicted of committing criminal acts are subject to punishment established by the state or federal government in the form of fines, imprisonment, or execution.
Crimes are usually classed as felonies or misdemeanors, depending on the seriousness of the offense. Felonies are serious offenses such as murder, rape, and arson that are generally punishable by confinement in a penitentiary for substantial periods of time. Conviction of a felony may, in some cases, also result in disenfranchisement (loss of the right to vote) and bar a person from practicing certain professions such as law or medicine. Misdemeanors are lesser crimes such as traffic offenses or disorderly conduct that are punishable by fines or confinement in a city or county jail. Those convicted of crimes must also bear the stigma or social condemnation that accompanies a criminal conviction.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Remember
Difficulty: 1 Easy
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the elements essential for a criminal conviction.
Topic: The Nature of Crimes
 

 

47.
(p. 91)
In the United States, what are the essential elements that must be shown by the state to obtain a criminal conviction?

In order for a person to be convicted of criminal behavior, the state must: (1) demonstrate a prior statutory prohibition of the act, (2) prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the defendant committed every element of the criminal offense prohibited by the statute, and (3) prove that the defendant had the capacity to form a criminal intent.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-01 Describe the elements essential for a criminal conviction.
Topic: The Essentials of Crime
 

 

48.
(p. 94)
Why does the legal system of the United States have safeguards to protect the accused? Name a few of these safeguards.

In addition to the presumption of innocence, the legal system of the United States has several other built-in safeguards to protect the accused. These safeguards are designed to prevent innocent people from being convicted of crimes they did not commit. They also represent an ideal of the proper role of government in a democracy. A few of these safeguards include the Fourth Amendment’s provision to protect individuals from arbitrary and unreasonable governmental intrusion on their right to privacy and the Fifth Amendment’s provision against compulsory self-incrimination and double jeopardy.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-03 Explain the exclusionary rule and the reasoning behind it.
Topic: Criminal Procedure
 

 

49.
(p. 100-101)
Explain two laws governing computer privacy in the United States.

Two federal laws that address computer privacy in the United States are the Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA) and the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act (CFAA). The ECPA broadly imposes privacy obligations on those who process and handle electronic communications, as well as on those who intercept such messages. It contains two major provisions: (1) its Wiretap Act protects against unauthorized interception of electronic communications and (2) its Stored Communication Act protects against unauthorized access and disclosure of electronic communication while it is in electronic storage. The CFAA civilly and criminally prohibits certain access to computers. Specifically, it bars a person without authorization from knowingly transmitting a program, information, code, or command with the intent of causing damage to a computer that is used in interstate or foreign commerce or communications. Other provisions in the statute prohibit interference with computers used by, or for the benefit of, the government or financial institutions. In general, the CFAA seeks to protect the privacy of information and communications as well as the national security of the United States. Simultaneously, it prohibits acts of sabotage or vandalism to protected computers or networks.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Cybercrime
 

 

50.
(p. 102)
If a country decides to join the Council of Europe’s “Convention on Cybercrime,” what does the country need to do as a part of this convention?

Drafted under U.S. influence, the Council of Europe’s “Convention on Cybercrime” aims to harmonize computer crime laws around the world by obliging participating countries to outlaw computer intrusion, child pornography, commercial copyright infringement, and online fraud. The treaty also requires each participating country to pass laws that permit the government to search and seize e-mail and computer records, perform Internet surveillance, and order ISPs to preserve logs in connection with an investigation.

 

AACSB: Analytic
Blooms: Understand
Difficulty: 2 Medium
Learning Objective: 05-05 Articulate the scope of RICO and the main things that have to be proved for a conviction.
Topic: Cybercrime
 

 

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